PCCN (Adult) guideStudy & preparation
PCCN Multisystem Review (15%): Sepsis Screening, Alcohol Withdrawal and Hospital-Acquired Infections
Multisystem is the second-largest PCCN category, at 15% of the test plan. Here is what it lists, how to screen for sepsis now that the test plan's 'severe sepsis' wording is out of date, when antimicrobials are due under the 2026 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines, the alcohol withdrawal timeline, CDC catheter and C. diff precautions, anaphylaxis and pressure injury staging.
Short answer
Multisystem is 15% of the PCCN test plan, about 19 of the 125 scored questions. It covers 14 problems, including sepsis, shock states, healthcare-acquired infections, alcohol and substance withdrawal, pain, palliative and end-of-life care, pressure injuries and wounds. Its sepsis action still says to screen for SIRS, sepsis and severe sepsis, but the 2016 Sepsis-3 definitions dropped severe sepsis. The 2026 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines recommend NEWS, MEWS or SIRS over qSOFA as a single screening tool, and antimicrobials within 1 hour for probable sepsis or possible septic shock.
Multisystem is where the PCCN tests problems that don't belong to one organ: infection that becomes sepsis, withdrawal that becomes delirium, a catheter that becomes a bloodstream infection. Several of its topics have been updated since some study materials were written, so this review flags what changed. It teaches from current references, isn't a substitute for your unit's protocols or a prescriber's orders, and gives no doses.
What the PCCN Multisystem category lists
The test plan in the PCCN Exam Handbook (Direct Care, July 2026) names 14 Multisystem problems:
- Infection: sepsis; healthcare-acquired infections (CAUTI, CLABSI, surgical site infection, hospital-acquired pneumonia); infectious diseases (influenza, multidrug-resistant organisms such as MRSA, VRE, CRE and ESBL); pandemic management
- Shock and toxicity: anaphylactic and hypovolemic shock; rhabdomyolysis; toxic ingestion, inhalation or drug overdose
- Withdrawal: alcohol withdrawal syndrome; substance withdrawal
- Comfort and goals of care: acute and chronic pain; palliative care; end-of-life care
- Skin: pressure injuries; wounds (infectious, surgical, trauma)
Its testable nursing actions are: administer medications for procedural sedation and monitor the response; differentiate types of wounds and pressure injuries; manage complex wounds (fistulas, drains, vacuum-assisted closure devices); manage patients receiving hypertonic solutions; manage patients with infections; and screen for SIRS, sepsis and severe sepsis. Withdrawal assessment tools (CIWA, COWS) and delirium screening (CAM) are listed under the Behavioral/Psychosocial actions.
At 15%, the category is about 19 scored questions (Passy's arithmetic). Full prep at launch includes 126 planned Multisystem questions, the second-largest set after Cardiovascular.
Sepsis screening when the test plan still says "severe sepsis"
The test plan's wording comes from older definitions. The 2016 Sepsis-3 consensus, whose abstract states that the task force "concluded the term severe sepsis was redundant," defines:
- Sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection.
- Septic shock as sepsis needing vasopressors to keep the mean arterial pressure at 65 mm Hg or more, with a serum lactate above 2 mmol/L, in the absence of hypovolemia.
The MSD Manual's sepsis chapter (reviewed March 2026) uses the same definitions and explains where the two screening sets fit:
| Screen | Criteria (MSD Manual) | What it is good for |
|---|---|---|
| SIRS (2 or more) | Temperature above 38 °C or below 36 °C; heart rate above 90/min; respiratory rate above 20/min or PaCO2 below 32 mm Hg; WBC above 12,000, below 4,000 or more than 10% bands | Not part of the formal sepsis definition and not specific (pancreatitis or MI can meet it), but still used to raise concern |
| qSOFA (2 or more) | Respiratory rate 22/min or more; altered mentation; systolic pressure 100 mm Hg or less | Predicts poor outcomes in patients with suspected infection outside the ICU |
The 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guideline explains the catch: qSOFA is more specific but less sensitive than two of four SIRS criteria, and it was derived to predict poor outcome, not to screen. The 2026 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines, published March 23, 2026, recommend (strong) using NEWS, NEWS2, MEWS or SIRS over qSOFA as a single tool to screen acutely ill hospital patients. They add a good practice statement that sepsis is a clinical diagnosis and shouldn't be ruled in or out by a single biomarker or test.
When antimicrobials are due under SSC 2026:
| Situation | SSC 2026 statement |
|---|---|
| Possible, probable or definite septic shock | Recommend antimicrobials immediately, ideally within 1 hour of recognition |
| Probable or definite sepsis without shock | Recommend antimicrobials immediately, ideally within 1 hour |
| Possible sepsis without shock | Suggest a time-limited, rapid investigation and, if concern for infection persists, antimicrobials within 3 hours of first suspicion |
| Low likelihood of infection, no shock | Suggest deferring antimicrobials while monitoring closely |
The same guidelines recommend blood cultures as soon as possible, ideally before antimicrobials, and suggest measuring lactate. For a step-down nurse the practical sequence is to screen, escalate a positive screen through your hospital's sepsis process, and help get cultures and the first dose done quickly. Fluid resuscitation, vasopressors and MAP targets for septic shock are covered in the published CCRN sepsis and shock guide, which also compares four shock states, hypovolemic among them.
One more clue from the MSD Manual: in older adults especially, confusion or decreased alertness may be an early sign as sepsis worsens.
Alcohol withdrawal: an approximate timeline and the care priorities
The MSD Manual's alcohol chapter (reviewed June 2025) describes withdrawal as a continuum. Approximate timing after the last drink:
| Time after cessation | What may appear |
|---|---|
| Within about 6 hours | Mild withdrawal: tremor, weakness, headache, sweating, hyperreflexia, GI symptoms, sometimes tachycardia and slightly raised blood pressure |
| 6 to 48 hours | Generalized tonic-clonic seizures, usually no more than 2 in short succession |
| 12 to 24 hours | Alcoholic hallucinosis, usually visual, with a clear sensorium and usually without the autonomic signs of delirium tremens |
| 48 to 72 hours | Delirium tremens: increasing confusion, poor sleep, profuse sweating, fleeting frightening hallucinations, life-threatening autonomic instability |
The hours are approximate, and references differ: MedlinePlus, for example, says symptoms of delirium tremens most often occur within 48 to 96 hours after the last drink. Learn the order of the stages rather than one exact number.
What the same chapter says about care:
- Assess with a tool. It points to the CIWA-Ar (Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol) scale for severity, the tool the PCCN test plan names.
- Thiamin. IV thiamin is given to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy.
- Benzodiazepines are the mainstay, with phenobarbital as an alternative or addition; dosing depends on agitation, vital signs and mental status.
- Avoid phenothiazines and haloperidol initially, because they may lower the seizure threshold.
- Where to treat. Severe withdrawal or delirium tremens should be managed in an ICU until it abates, and for delirium tremens the chapter advises avoiding physical restraints where possible.
The test plan also names substance withdrawal and the COWS, the Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale, which NIDA describes as an 11-item scale a clinician administers to rate opiate withdrawal over time. This review doesn't cover them, so study them from a reference on the PCCN bibliography. Timelines like the one above are flashcard material, and 70 planned Multisystem flashcards are part of full prep at launch.
Hospital-acquired infections: what CDC actually recommends
CAUTI. From CDC's catheter-associated urinary tract infection guideline (2009, last updated 2019), with its recommendation categories:
| Do | Don't |
|---|---|
| Insert catheters only for appropriate indications and leave them in only as long as needed (IB) | Change catheters or drainage bags at routine, fixed intervals; change them for infection, obstruction or a compromised closed system instead (II) |
| Keep a closed drainage system after aseptic insertion (IB) | Irrigate the bladder unless obstruction is anticipated (II) |
| Keep the catheter and tubing free from kinking, and the collecting bag below the level of the bladder at all times, never on the floor (IB) | Clamp catheters before removal; CDC says it isn't necessary (II) |
| Use routine hygiene, such as cleansing the meatal surface during daily bathing (IB) | Clean the periurethral area with antiseptics to prevent CAUTI (IB) |
For operative patients with a catheter, the guideline says to remove it as soon as possible after surgery, preferably within 24 hours, unless there are appropriate indications to continue.
CLABSI. CDC's intravascular catheter guideline (2011, last updated 2017) recommends promptly removing any intravascular catheter that is no longer essential, and preparing clean skin with a chlorhexidine preparation of more than 0.5% with alcohol before central venous and peripheral arterial catheter insertion and during dressing changes (both Category IA).
C. difficile. CDC's "C. diff: Facts for Clinicians" says to isolate patients with possible C. diff immediately, wear gloves and a gown when treating patients with potential infectious diarrhea, and clean and disinfect room surfaces daily with an EPA-approved spore-killing disinfectant. It notes that hand sanitizer doesn't kill C. diff.
Anaphylaxis: epinephrine first
The MSD Manual's anaphylaxis chapter (reviewed September 2026) calls epinephrine the cornerstone of treatment, to be given immediately because symptoms can progress quickly to airway occlusion or shock. Absorption is greatest when it is given IM in the anterolateral thigh. Other points from the chapter:
- Beta-blockers don't change the first step. Epinephrine should be used regardless of beta-blocker therapy, even though its effect may be reduced.
- Airway. Stridor and wheezing that don't respond to epinephrine call for oxygen and intubation, and early intubation is recommended.
- Blood pressure. Hypotension often resolves with epinephrine; persistent hypotension is treated with isotonic IV fluids, and refractory cases may need vasopressors.
- Adjuncts. H1 antihistamines are given until symptoms resolve, and inhaled short-acting beta-agonists help bronchoconstriction that persists after epinephrine.
- Watch afterward. Late-phase reactions can occur 4 to 8 hours or more after exposure, so patients are observed in an acute care setting for several hours.
Pressure injuries: staging by depth
Differentiating pressure injuries is a testable action. The MSD Manual's pressure injury chapter (reviewed September 2025) uses the National Pressure Injury Advisory Panel stages:
| Stage | What you see |
|---|---|
| Stage 1 | Intact skin with nonblanchable redness, usually over a bony prominence; color change may be less visible in dark skin |
| Stage 2 | Partial-thickness loss with a shallow pink or red base, or an intact or ruptured blister from pressure; no subcutaneous tissue exposed |
| Stage 3 | Full-thickness loss into subcutaneous tissue, not including fascia; no muscle or bone exposed |
| Stage 4 | Full-thickness loss with exposed muscle, tendon or bone |
| Unstageable | Full-thickness loss whose depth is hidden by slough or eschar |
| Deep tissue pressure injury | Persistent nonblanchable purple or maroon discoloration of intact or nonintact skin, or a blood-filled blister |
The chapter adds two traps: the stages don't imply a linear progression (a deep injury can be the first sign), and stable, dry eschar should never be debrided just to stage the wound.
Your next step for PCCN Multisystem study
Write the SSC 2026 antimicrobial timing table from memory and check it, then take a recent patient from your unit and decide which row they would have fit. For practice under time pressure, the free PCCN practice questions mix Multisystem items with the other categories, and the PCCN practice questions guide includes original sepsis and catheter-care items with full reasoning. Once full prep opens, the planned Redemption challenge for questions you missed brings your misses back until they stick.
Trust the source
Official sources
Exam policies can change. Use these primary sources for the most current details.
- PCCN Exam Handbook – Direct Care Eligibility Pathway (July 2026)AACN Certification Corporation↗
- Surviving Sepsis Campaign: International Guidelines for Management of Sepsis and Septic Shock 2026Society of Critical Care Medicine↗
- Surviving Sepsis Campaign: International Guidelines for Management of Sepsis and Septic Shock 2021 (Intensive Care Med 2021)Society of Critical Care Medicine / ESICM↗
- The Third International Consensus Definitions for Sepsis and Septic Shock (Sepsis-3) (JAMA 2016;315:801–810)JAMA↗
- Sepsis and Septic Shock (MSD Manual Professional Edition, reviewed March 2026)Merck & Co. (MSD Manual)↗
- Alcohol Toxicity and Withdrawal (MSD Manual Professional Edition, reviewed June 2025)Merck & Co. (MSD Manual)↗
- Delirium tremens (MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, review date January 1, 2025)National Library of Medicine (MedlinePlus)↗
- Clinical Opiate Withdrawal ScaleNational Institute on Drug Abuse↗
- Guideline for Prevention of Catheter-Associated Urinary Tract Infections (2009, last updated June 6, 2019)CDC / HICPAC↗
- Guidelines for the Prevention of Intravascular Catheter-Related Infections, 2011 (last updated October 2017)CDC / HICPAC↗
- C. diff: Facts for CliniciansCDC↗
- Anaphylaxis (MSD Manual Professional Edition, reviewed September 2026)Merck & Co. (MSD Manual)↗
- Pressure Injuries (MSD Manual Professional Edition, reviewed September 2025)Merck & Co. (MSD Manual)↗