20 free CCMA practice questions

Correct answer: A · 80 kg

One kilogram equals about 2.2 pounds (one pound is defined as exactly 0.45359237 kg), so pounds are converted to kilograms by dividing by 2.2. Step by step: 176 ÷ 2.2 = 80 kg. As a check, 176 × 0.4536 = 79.8, which rounds to 80 kg. Multiplying by 2.2 instead of dividing gives 387.2, a value larger than the weight in pounds, which is impossible for a kilogram figure. Dividing by 2 gives 88 kg, a rough shortcut that overstates the weight by 10%, enough to distort a weight-based dose. Moving the decimal point gives 17.6 kg. The CCMA test plan lists metric and standard measurements and conversions under Foundational Knowledge (k17).

Look for this next time: Convert pounds to kilograms by dividing by 2.2; a kilogram value must always be smaller than the pound value.

Correct answer: C · Diazepam

The federal schedules are listed in the DEA regulations. Diazepam appears in Schedule IV, 21 CFR 1308.14, alongside other benzodiazepines such as midazolam. Oxycodone and fentanyl are Schedule II opioids under 21 CFR 1308.12, the schedule with the tightest prescribing rules, including no refills. Buprenorphine is listed in Schedule III, 21 CFR 1308.13. Knowing a drug's schedule matters for a medical assistant because it changes how refill requests, prescription transmission, and controlled-substance logs are handled. The CCMA test plan lists drug classifications and schedules of controlled substances under Foundational Knowledge (k15).

Look for this next time: Oxycodone and fentanyl are Schedule II, buprenorphine is Schedule III, and diazepam is Schedule IV under DEA regulations.

Correct answer: D · The pulmonary veins

NHLBI's explanation of blood flow through the heart says the pulmonary artery carries oxygen-poor blood from the heart to the lungs, the lungs add oxygen, and the oxygen-rich blood returns to the heart through the pulmonary veins, which empty into the left atrium. The pulmonary arteries are the exception to the usual rule that arteries carry oxygen-rich blood: they carry oxygen-poor blood away from the heart. The superior vena cava returns oxygen-poor blood from the upper body to the right atrium. The coronary arteries supply the heart muscle itself. The CCMA test plan lists the structure and function of major body systems under Anatomy and Physiology (k37).

Look for this next time: Pulmonary arteries carry oxygen-poor blood to the lungs; pulmonary veins return oxygen-rich blood to the left atrium.

Correct answer: A · BMI 29.4, overweight

CDC defines adult BMI as weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared. Step by step: 1.70 × 1.70 = 2.89; then 85 ÷ 2.89 = 29.41, which rounds to 29.4. CDC's adult categories are underweight below 18.5, healthy weight 18.5 to less than 25, overweight 25 to less than 30, and obesity 30 or greater, with class 1 obesity starting at 30. A BMI of 29.4 is therefore overweight. Dividing 85 by 1.70 without squaring the height gives 50.0. A BMI of 24.9 does not match these measurements. Calling 29.4 class 1 obesity applies the wrong cutoff. The CCMA test plan lists height, weight, and BMI measurement under Patient Intake and Vitals (k57).

Look for this next time: BMI is kilograms divided by meters squared; CDC calls 25 to under 30 overweight and 30 or more obesity.

Correct answer: B · 101.3 °F

To convert Celsius to Fahrenheit, multiply by 1.8 (that is, 9/5) and then add 32. Step by step: 38.5 × 1.8 = 69.3; 69.3 + 32 = 101.3 °F. Stopping after the multiplication leaves 69.3, which forgets the 32-degree offset. Adding 32 first and then multiplying, (38.5 + 32) × 1.8, gives 126.9, which reverses the order of the steps. The value 100.4 °F is a commonly quoted fever threshold that equals 38.0 °C, not 38.5 °C, so entering it would understate the reading. A quick check works in reverse: (101.3 − 32) ÷ 1.8 = 38.5. The CCMA test plan lists converting vital-sign measurements under Patient Intake and Vitals (task 3A5 and k56).

Look for this next time: Celsius to Fahrenheit: multiply by 1.8, then add 32; reverse the steps to check your answer.

Correct answer: C · Hold the irrigation and tell the provider before proceeding

MedlinePlus, the National Library of Medicine's consumer health site, advises never to irrigate the ear or use wax-softening drops if the eardrum may have a hole in it or after recent ear surgery, and not to irrigate with a jet irrigator designed for cleaning teeth. This patient reports both a perforation history and recent surgery, so the order should not be carried out until the provider knows and decides on another approach. Gentle pressure and warm water do not remove the risk of water passing through a perforation into the middle ear. Softening drops carry the same warning. A dental jet is specifically warned against. The CCMA test plan lists ear irrigation under General Patient Care (task 3B9).

Look for this next time: Do not irrigate an ear, or use softening drops, when the eardrum may be perforated or after recent ear surgery; tell the provider.

Correct answer: B · Schedule II drugs cannot be refilled; the provider decides on a new prescription

Oxycodone is a Schedule II controlled substance (21 CFR 1308.12), and federal regulation 21 CFR 1306.12(a) states that refilling a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance is prohibited. The correct response is to explain that the old prescription cannot be refilled and route the request to the provider, who decides whether a new prescription is appropriate. The same section allows a practitioner to issue multiple separate prescriptions totaling up to a 90-day supply, but each is a new prescription written by the practitioner, not a refill an MA can authorize. A phoned refill, a 30-day refill, and a faxed 'refill' all attempt the prohibited act. The CCMA test plan covers legal requirements for prescriptions and refills (task 3B15, k84).

Look for this next time: Federal law prohibits refills of Schedule II prescriptions; route the request to the provider for a new prescription decision.

Correct answer: D · Label the syringe and the saline cup with their contents now

The Joint Commission's 2026 ambulatory care goal NPSG.03.04.01 says to label medicines that are not labeled before a procedure, for example medicines in syringes, cups, and basins, and to do it where medicines and supplies are set up. Its elements of performance add that this applies even if only one medication is used, and the 2026 hospital version, NPG.14.03.01, lists what the label includes, such as the medication name and strength. A filled syringe and a cup of clear fluid look alike once they leave their original containers, so both need labels now. A single medication is not an exception. A verbal handoff leaves nothing on the container. A vial on the tray is not attached to the syringe and can be moved or confused.

Look for this next time: Label every syringe, cup, or basin holding a medicine or solution once it leaves its original container, even if there is only one.

Correct answer: A · Have her lie down or recline, stay with her, and alert the provider

Pallor, sweating, and lightheadedness after a needle procedure fit a vasovagal reaction. The WHO guidelines on drawing blood (2010) describe these signs and list reclining the person, loosening clothing, monitoring pulse and blood pressure, and reassurance as management, with a physician called for a severe reaction and the recovery position if consciousness is lost. Lying her down protects her from a fall and helps blood flow to the brain, loosening tight clothing can follow, and the provider needs to know. Standing and walking raise the risk of fainting and falling. Sending her to the waiting room removes her from observation. Leaving her alone on the exam table risks a fall from height. The CCMA test plan lists responding to urgent situations such as syncope under General Patient Care (task 3B11, k81).

Look for this next time: For a patient who feels faint, get her lying down or reclined, stay with her, and alert the provider.

Correct answer: C · Activate the safety device now and discard the syringe intact in the container

OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, 29 CFR 1910.1030, says contaminated needles shall not be bent, recapped, or removed unless no alternative is feasible, and requires contaminated sharps to be discarded immediately or as soon as feasible in closable, puncture-resistant, leakproof, labeled containers. It also requires sharps containers to be easily accessible and as close as feasible to where sharps are used. Engaging the safety device immediately makes the needle safe to carry the short distance, and the whole device goes into the container. Two-handed recapping is a classic needlestick hazard. Removing the needle and using the regular trash both violate the standard. Leaving an exposed sharp on the counter endangers the next person. The container should then be moved back within reach.

Look for this next time: Activate the safety device right away and discard the needle and syringe intact in a sharps container; never recap with two hands.

Correct answer: D · Run a biological indicator with bacterial spores at least weekly

CDC's Guideline for Disinfection and Sterilization in Healthcare Facilities (2008) recommends testing sterilizer effectiveness with biological indicators at least weekly, using an FDA-cleared spore preparation matched to the sterilizer; for steam, the example organism is Geobacillus stearothermophilus. Because these spores are highly resistant, killing them is the direct evidence that the cycle achieved sterilization. The same guideline calls for monitoring each load with mechanical readings, such as time, temperature, and pressure, and with internal and external chemical indicators, but these show that conditions were reached, not that organisms were killed. Indicator tape on the outside of a pack shows only that the pack went through a cycle. A yearly internal indicator falls far short of either schedule.

Look for this next time: A spore-based biological indicator, run at least weekly, is CDC's check that a steam sterilizer is killing organisms.

Correct answer: A · At 20 feet, the child reads what normal eyes can read at 40 feet

The American Academy of Ophthalmology explains that in a visual acuity fraction the top number is the distance in feet from the chart, and the bottom number is the distance at which a person with normal eyesight can read the same line. So 20/40 means the child, standing 20 feet away, can read only what a person with normal vision could read from 40 feet away; 20/20 is normal. Reversing the numbers describes better-than-normal vision. The fraction is not a percentage of vision lost. The test distance is the top number, 20 feet, not 40. The CCMA test plan lists vision tests under Point of Care Testing and Laboratory Procedures (task 3D6, k118).

Look for this next time: In 20/40, the top number is the test distance and the bottom is where normal eyes read that same line.

Correct answer: B · Recollect a properly filled citrate tube for the PT/INR

The WHO guidelines on drawing blood (2010) note that the light-blue citrate coagulation tube requires a full draw, and list underfilling a tube so that the ratio of anticoagulant to blood rises above 1:9 among collection errors. A half-filled citrate tube has roughly twice the anticoagulant for the blood it holds, so the specimen does not meet the tube's requirement and must be recollected. A 'short draw' note does not correct the ratio. Extra inversions or a longer spin cannot change how much citrate is in the tube, and adding saline dilutes the specimen, which creates a new error. The CCMA test plan lists fill levels and blood-to-additive ratios under Phlebotomy (k135).

Look for this next time: Coagulation (light-blue) tubes need a full draw to keep the 1:9 citrate ratio; recollect an underfilled tube.

Correct answer: C · 75 per minute

At 25 mm per second, each millimeter (one small box) represents 1 ÷ 25 = 0.04 seconds, and each large box of 5 mm represents 0.20 seconds. Step by step: 20 mm × 0.04 s = 0.80 seconds between beats; 60 seconds ÷ 0.80 seconds = 75 beats per minute. The shortcut gives the same result: 300 ÷ 4 large boxes = 75. A rate of 60 would need 25 mm (five large boxes) between beats, and 100 would need 15 mm (three large boxes). 300 is the shortcut's numerator, the rate if beats were only one large box apart. These methods work for a regular rhythm. The CCMA test plan lists waveforms, intervals, and abnormal rhythms under EKG and Cardiovascular Testing (k155, k156).

Look for this next time: At 25 mm/s, rate equals 300 divided by the number of large boxes between R waves in a regular rhythm.

Correct answer: D · Have a mammogram every 2 years from age 40 through 74

The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force's final recommendation of April 30, 2024 (grade B) recommends biennial screening mammography for women aged 40 to 74 years. At 42 with average risk and no mammogram on file, she is due, so the MA flags the chart for the provider to discuss screening. Starting at 50 reflects the task force's earlier recommendation, which the 2024 update replaced. Yearly screening from 45 does not match the USPSTF schedule. Waiting for symptoms is the opposite of screening, which looks for cancer before symptoms appear. The CCMA test plan lists identifying timelines and tracking recommendations for screenings such as mammograms under Patient Care Coordination and Education (task 4C).

Look for this next time: The 2024 USPSTF recommendation is screening mammography every 2 years for women aged 40 to 74 at average risk.

Correct answer: B · Have her explain the steps in her own words and show how she will use it

AHRQ's Health Literacy Universal Precautions Toolkit describes the teach-back method as checking understanding by asking patients to state in their own words what they need to know or do, and the related show-me method as confirming that patients can follow instructions, using an inhaler as its example. AHRQ notes that teach-back is not a test of the patient's memory and that if the patient misunderstands, the staff member re-explains in a different way and checks again. A yes-or-no question about questions rarely uncovers a misunderstanding, since many patients say no. A signed handout shows receipt, not understanding. Repeating the same explanation louder does not check anything. The CCMA test plan lists education delivery methods and instructional techniques under Patient Care Coordination and Education (k160).

Look for this next time: Use teach-back and show-me: have the patient explain and demonstrate, then re-teach anything that was missed.

Correct answer: A · $50

HealthCare.gov defines coinsurance as the percentage of the costs of a covered service the patient pays after paying the deductible, and the allowed amount as the maximum the plan will pay for that service. If the plan pays 80%, the patient's coinsurance is the remaining 20%. Step by step: 100% − 80% = 20%; 20% × $250 = $50. The plan pays the other $200, which is the plan's share, not hers. Charging $250 ignores that the deductible is already met. Charging $80 confuses the plan's percentage with a dollar amount. The CCMA test plan lists insurance terminology such as copayment, coinsurance, and deductible under Administrative Assisting (k182).

Look for this next time: Coinsurance is the patient's percentage of the allowed amount after the deductible; at 80/20, she pays 20%.

Correct answer: C · Before the test is done, early enough for the patient to weigh the options

CMS says the ABN, Form CMS-R-131, is issued to Original Medicare beneficiaries when Medicare payment is expected to be denied, to transfer potential financial liability to the beneficiary. CMS's ABN form instructions say to deliver the ABN to the patient or representative before providing the items or services, far enough in advance that the patient has time to consider the options and make an informed choice, and to review it and answer questions before it is signed. Giving it after a denial, or at a later visit, defeats its purpose, because the patient could not decide in advance. Waiting for the patient to ask about cost leaves the notice to chance. The CCMA test plan lists the advance beneficiary notice under Administrative Assisting (k186).

Look for this next time: Give the ABN before the service, early enough for the Medicare patient to decide, whenever Medicare is expected to deny payment.

Correct answer: D · Connect a qualified medical interpreter through the phone service

HHS's Section 1557 nondiscrimination rule, 45 CFR 92.201, requires covered health programs to take reasonable steps to give people with limited English proficiency meaningful access, including qualified interpreters, and bars relying on a minor child to interpret, except as a temporary measure in an emergency that threatens someone's safety when no qualified interpreter is immediately available. This is not an emergency, and a qualified interpreter is available by phone, so the MA uses the service. A child may lack medical vocabulary, may filter sensitive information, and should not carry that role. Simple English and gestures risk misunderstanding about care. A stranger from the waiting room is not a qualified interpreter and creates a privacy problem. The CCMA test plan covers language barriers under Communication and Customer Service (k195).

Look for this next time: Use a qualified medical interpreter for patients with limited English; do not rely on a child except in an emergency.

Correct answer: B · A durable power of attorney for health care naming her daughter

The National Institute on Aging explains that a durable power of attorney for health care is a legal document that names a health care proxy, a person who can make health care decisions for you if you are unable to communicate them yourself, and that a proxy can be chosen in addition to or instead of a living will. A living will records treatment wishes but does not appoint someone to decide. A DNR order addresses only whether CPR is attempted. A HIPAA authorization lets the daughter receive health information, but it gives her no decision-making authority. The MA's role is to connect the patient with the provider and the office's process; the form's name and requirements vary by state. The CCMA test plan lists power of attorney and advance directives under Medical Law and Ethics (k217, k218).

Look for this next time: A durable power of attorney for health care names a proxy to make decisions; a living will states wishes but appoints no one.