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20 free EPPP (Part 1-Knowledge) practice questions
Twenty original items for the EPPP (Part 1-Knowledge), from psychopharmacology and memory research to base rates, prevention programs, and the APA Ethics Code. The items are split across ASPPB's eight content domains approximately in proportion to their weights, but 20 items cannot match the real exam's mix or difficulty, and your score here does not predict a pass.
Start question 1These are original Passy questions written for EPPP (Part 1-Knowledge) preparation. They are not official ASPPB items, not the sample questions in the EPPP Candidate Handbook, not items from ASPPB's SEPPP or SEPPPO sample exams, and not recalled exam questions. Each is a single-answer item with four options; items on the real exam have three or four. The 20 items follow the eight domain weights by largest remainder: 2, 3, 2, 3, 3, 3, 1, and 3 items, in ASPPB's domain order. They follow the current Part 1 outline (2017 Job Task Analysis), not the integrated EPPP that ASPPB plans for the fourth quarter of 2027. Your results here do not predict a pass or a scaled score of 500.
Biological bases of behaviorStep 1 · Choose one answer
A 46-year-old man with bipolar I disorder has taken lithium for years with stable serum levels. Three weeks after his primary care physician adds hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension, he reports diarrhea, a coarse hand tremor, an unsteady gait, and new confusion. What is the most likely explanation?
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A 46-year-old man with bipolar I disorder has taken lithium for years with stable serum levels. Three weeks after his primary care physician adds hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension, he reports diarrhea, a coarse hand tremor, an unsteady gait, and new confusion. What is the most likely explanation?
- Lithium toxicity, because the thiazide reduced lithium clearance
- Serotonin syndrome from combining two serotonergic medications
- A hypertensive crisis triggered by tyramine-rich foods in his diet
- Neuroleptic malignant syndrome caused by dopamine receptor blockade
Show answer and explanation for question 1
Correct answer: A · Lithium toxicity, because the thiazide reduced lithium clearance
The FDA-approved lithium labeling on DailyMed warns that diuretic-induced sodium loss may reduce lithium clearance and raise serum lithium concentrations, and it lists diarrhea, tremor, ataxia, and confusion among the signs of toxicity, which can appear at levels close to the therapeutic range. A newly added thiazide followed by these signs points to lithium toxicity, which needs an urgent serum level and medical review; the psychologist's part is to recognize it and contact the prescriber at once. Serotonin syndrome requires a serotonergic combination, and hydrochlorothiazide is not serotonergic. A tyramine-triggered hypertensive crisis is a risk with MAO inhibitors, which he does not take. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome follows dopamine-blocking antipsychotics and typically brings rigidity and fever.
Look for this next time: Diuretics such as thiazides can raise lithium levels; new tremor, ataxia, diarrhea, or confusion calls for urgent medical review.
After a corpus callosotomy for severe epilepsy, a right-handed woman fixes her gaze on a central point while the word KEY flashes briefly in her left visual field. Asked what she saw, she says she saw nothing. Which response is she most likely able to make?
- Name the word aloud if it is flashed again in the same place
- Pick out a key by touch with her left hand, among hidden objects
- Pick out a key by touch with her right hand, among hidden objects
- Write the word KEY with her right hand
Show answer and explanation for question 2
Correct answer: B · Pick out a key by touch with her left hand, among hidden objects
Input from the left visual field goes to the right hemisphere. With the corpus callosum cut, it cannot cross to the left hemisphere, which handles speech in most right-handed people, so she cannot name the word. The right hemisphere controls the left hand, so she can still identify the object by touch with that hand. OpenStax Psychology 2e describes the same pattern: split-brain patients cannot name a picture shown in the left visual field but can reproduce it with the left hand. Flashing the word again in the same field sends it to the same largely nonverbal hemisphere. The right hand, and right-handed writing, are controlled by the left hemisphere, which never received the word.
Look for this next time: In split-brain patients, left-visual-field input reaches only the right hemisphere: it can guide the left hand but usually cannot be named.
A 4-year-old screams in the checkout line until his father buys him candy, and the screaming then stops. Over several weeks, the father hands over candy sooner and sooner. In operant terms, what is happening to the father's behavior?
- It is positively reinforced, because he gains the child's approval
- It is negatively reinforced, because buying candy ends the screaming
- It is punished, because he has to pay for the candy each time
- It is undergoing extinction, because the tantrums still happen
Show answer and explanation for question 3
Correct answer: B · It is negatively reinforced, because buying candy ends the screaming
Reinforcement is defined by its effect: the behavior becomes more frequent. The father's candy buying increases, and what follows it is the removal of an aversive stimulus, the screaming. Removing an unpleasant stimulus to increase a behavior is negative reinforcement, as OpenStax Psychology 2e defines it. At the same time, the child's screaming is positively reinforced by the candy, which is why the cycle continues. No approval is described, so positive reinforcement of the father does not fit the facts. Punishment would make the father buy candy less often, yet he buys it sooner. Extinction means a behavior weakens after reinforcement stops; here reinforcement continues on both sides.
Look for this next time: Negative reinforcement strengthens a behavior by removing something aversive; punishment always weakens a behavior.
Participants hear a list of 20 unrelated words and then recall them in any order. In one condition, recall begins at once; in the other, they first count backward by threes for 30 seconds. Compared with immediate recall, what is the delayed condition most likely to show?
- A much smaller recency effect, with the primacy effect largely intact
- A much smaller primacy effect, with the recency effect largely intact
- No primacy or recency effect, giving a flat serial position curve
- Larger primacy and recency effects, because counting adds rehearsal
Show answer and explanation for question 4
Correct answer: A · A much smaller recency effect, with the primacy effect largely intact
In immediate free recall, the first items (primacy) and the last few items (recency) are recalled best. Primacy is usually attributed to extra rehearsal that moves early items into long-term memory; recency reflects items still held in short-term memory. A filled delay such as backward counting displaces those last items and blocks rehearsal, so the recency effect largely disappears while primacy remains, the pattern reported by Glanzer and Cunitz (1966) and Postman and Phillips (1965). The reverse pattern would require the delay to disrupt long-term storage and spare short-term storage. A flat curve overstates the effect, because early items keep their advantage. Counting backward prevents rehearsal rather than adding to it.
Look for this next time: A filled delay before recall removes the recency effect but leaves the primacy effect largely intact.
A pianist plays simple scales best when she feels keyed up, but her accuracy on a demanding new piece falls apart when she is highly anxious before a recital. Which principle best accounts for this pattern?
- The James-Lange theory, in which bodily arousal comes before emotion
- The Yerkes-Dodson law, in which optimal arousal is lower for complex tasks
- Drive theory, in which more arousal always improves performance
- Opponent-process theory, in which emotions reverse after a stimulus ends
Show answer and explanation for question 5
Correct answer: B · The Yerkes-Dodson law, in which optimal arousal is lower for complex tasks
The Yerkes-Dodson law describes an inverted-U relationship between arousal and performance, with the best level of arousal depending on the task. OpenStax Psychology 2e summarizes it this way: simple tasks are performed best at relatively high arousal, and complex tasks at lower arousal. Her scales benefit from feeling keyed up, while the difficult new piece suffers under high anxiety. The James-Lange theory concerns how emotions arise from bodily changes, not how arousal affects performance. A rule that more arousal always improves performance cannot explain the decline on the hard piece. Opponent-process theory explains emotional after-reactions, such as relief once a feared event ends, not task performance.
Look for this next time: Under the Yerkes-Dodson law, performance peaks at moderate arousal, and the optimum is lower for complex tasks.
Each member of a civil jury privately favors a moderately large damage award. The jurors then deliberate openly for two hours, no one is pressured to agree, and most arguments favor the plaintiff. The jury settles on an award larger than any juror first proposed. Which phenomenon does this illustrate?
- Groupthink, in which pressure for unanimity silences dissent
- Social loafing, in which people work less when effort is pooled
- Group polarization, a shift toward the group's initial leaning
- Deindividuation, a loss of self-awareness in a crowd
Show answer and explanation for question 6
Correct answer: C · Group polarization, a shift toward the group's initial leaning
Group polarization is the strengthening of a group's initial inclination after discussion: a group that leans one way usually ends up leaning further that way, as OpenStax Psychology 2e describes. These jurors began by favoring a moderately large award, heard mostly supportive arguments, and chose a larger one. Groupthink describes cohesive groups in which the drive for consensus suppresses dissent and critical appraisal; the stem rules this out, since views were aired freely and no one was pressured. Social loafing concerns reduced individual effort on pooled tasks, not a shift in judgment. Deindividuation involves anonymity and lowered self-awareness, which do not fit an open deliberation among identified jurors.
Look for this next time: Discussion among people who share a leaning tends to push the group's decision further in that direction.
A woman who moved from Vietnam to Canada as an adult speaks Vietnamese at home, keeps family traditions, and is active in her temple. She also works on a mixed team, has close friends born in Canada, and votes in local elections. In Berry's acculturation model, which strategy does she show?
- Assimilation
- Separation
- Marginalization
- Integration
Show answer and explanation for question 7
Correct answer: D · Integration
Berry's model crosses two questions: does the person maintain the heritage culture, and does the person take part in the wider society? Integration means doing both, which matches her language, traditions, and temple life alongside her work, friendships, and civic participation. Assimilation means adopting the host culture while letting go of the heritage culture. Separation means keeping the heritage culture while avoiding contact with the wider society. Marginalization means little connection to either. Research reviews often link integration with better adjustment than marginalization or separation, though individual paths vary and a person's strategy can shift over time and across settings.
Look for this next time: In Berry's model, integration means keeping the heritage culture while also taking part in the wider society.
A 5-year-old watches juice poured from a short, wide glass into a tall, narrow one and insists the tall glass now holds more. When the juice is poured back, she says the amounts are equal again. Which explanation does Piaget's theory give for her error?
- No object permanence yet, a limit of the sensorimotor stage
- Centration and irreversibility, limits of the preoperational stage
- Weak hypothetical reasoning, a limit of the concrete operational stage
- Adolescent egocentrism, a limit of early formal operations
Show answer and explanation for question 8
Correct answer: B · Centration and irreversibility, limits of the preoperational stage
Conservation is the understanding that pouring a liquid into a differently shaped container does not change its amount. Piaget held that children in the preoperational stage, roughly ages 2 to 7, fail conservation tasks because they center on one salient dimension, here the height of the liquid, and cannot mentally reverse the transformation. OpenStax Lifespan Development describes centration as this preoperational focus on a single feature and ties conservation to decentration and reversibility in middle childhood. Object permanence develops in infancy, and she clearly knows the juice still exists. Children in concrete operations can conserve; their limit is abstract, hypothetical thinking. Adolescent egocentrism belongs to the teen years.
Look for this next time: Preoperational children fail conservation because they center on one dimension and cannot mentally reverse a change.
A 19-year-old college student has declared the major his parents chose and plans to join the family accounting firm. He has never seriously considered other careers or values and has no doubts about the plan. Which of Marcia's identity statuses best describes him?
- Identity achievement
- Moratorium
- Identity diffusion
- Identity foreclosure
Show answer and explanation for question 9
Correct answer: D · Identity foreclosure
Marcia classified identity status by two questions: has the person explored alternatives, and has the person made a commitment? He is firmly committed, but the commitment came from his parents' plan without any exploration, which defines foreclosure; OpenStax Lifespan Development describes it as committing to an identity without exploration. Identity achievement also involves commitment, but only after genuine exploration. Moratorium is active exploration without a firm commitment yet. Identity diffusion involves neither exploring nor committing. Foreclosure is not necessarily permanent: later experiences, such as a new course or a setback, can prompt exploration in early adulthood.
Look for this next time: Foreclosure is commitment without exploration, often to goals or values adopted from parents.
At 78, a retired carpenter still builds furniture. He now takes on only the small pieces he cares about most, practices joinery more often than before, and uses clamps, jigs, and power tools to make up for a weaker grip. Which framework best describes his approach?
- Disengagement theory of aging
- Activity theory of aging
- Selective optimization with compensation
- Erikson's generativity versus stagnation
Show answer and explanation for question 10
Correct answer: C · Selective optimization with compensation
Baltes's selective optimization with compensation (SOC) model describes successful aging through three linked processes: selecting fewer, higher-priority goals, optimizing performance on them through practice and effort, and compensating for losses with aids or new strategies. OpenStax Lifespan Development defines SOC in these terms. He selects the pieces he values, optimizes by practicing more, and compensates for his grip with tools. Disengagement theory describes a gradual withdrawal from roles and activities, which he has not made. Activity theory holds that staying active and replacing lost roles supports well-being; he is active, but it does not explain the narrowing, practice, and compensation that define his strategy. Generativity versus stagnation is Erikson's midlife stage.
Look for this next time: SOC means narrowing to priority goals, practicing to maintain them, and using aids or new strategies to offset losses.
An intelligence test has a standard deviation of 15 and a reliability coefficient of .91. A client obtains a full-scale score of 100. Using the standard error of measurement (SEM) around the obtained score, which statement is correct?
- The SEM is 4.5, so the 95% confidence interval is about 91 to 109
- The SEM is 1.35, so the 95% confidence interval is about 97 to 103
- The SEM is 13.7, so the score is too unreliable to interpret
- The SEM is 4.5, so the 95% confidence interval is about 95.5 to 104.5
Show answer and explanation for question 11
Correct answer: A · The SEM is 4.5, so the 95% confidence interval is about 91 to 109
The standard error of measurement is SD × √(1 − r). Step by step: 1 − .91 = .09; √.09 = .30; 15 × .30 = 4.5. A 95% confidence interval spans about ±1.96 SEM: 1.96 × 4.5 = 8.82, so 100 − 8.82 ≈ 91 and 100 + 8.82 ≈ 109. The 1.35 figure multiplies 15 by .09 and skips the square root. The 13.7 figure multiplies 15 by .91, using the reliability coefficient itself in place of √(1 − r). An interval of 95.5 to 104.5 is only ±1 SEM, which covers about 68% of cases, not 95%. Higher reliability always shrinks the SEM and narrows the interval.
Look for this next time: SEM equals SD times the square root of one minus reliability; a 95% interval spans about ±1.96 SEM.
A depression screening measure has a sensitivity of .90 and a specificity of .90. It is given to 1,000 primary care patients, 10% of whom have major depression. Of the patients who screen positive, about what proportion actually have major depression?
- About 90%
- About 81%
- About 10%
- About 50%
Show answer and explanation for question 12
Correct answer: D · About 50%
This is the positive predictive value, and it depends on the base rate. Of 1,000 patients, 100 have depression; with sensitivity .90, 90 of them screen positive (true positives). The other 900 do not have depression; with specificity .90, 10% of them, or 90 people, also screen positive (false positives). Positive screens total 90 + 90 = 180, and 90 ÷ 180 = .50, or about 50%. Ninety percent is the sensitivity, the share of true cases detected, not the share of positive screens that are true cases. Eighty-one percent comes from multiplying .90 by .90, which has no meaning here. Ten percent is the base rate before screening.
Look for this next time: When a condition is uncommon, even an accurate test yields many false positives, so positive predictive value falls.
An 82-year-old woman hospitalized for a urinary tract infection became confused over two days. Her attention drifts mid-sentence, she is clearer in the morning but disoriented and agitated at night, and her family says she managed her own finances last month. Which condition is most likely?
- Major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease
- Delirium
- Cognitive symptoms of a major depressive episode
- Mild neurocognitive disorder
Show answer and explanation for question 13
Correct answer: B · Delirium
Delirium is an acute confusional state with disturbed attention and a fluctuating course, often with a medical cause. OpenStax Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing notes that delirium symptoms usually start suddenly, over hours or days, and often come and go, and it names urinary tract infection as one of the most common causes in older adults. Dementia, by contrast, is a persistent, progressive decline in which attention is usually spared until later stages. Her two-day onset, drifting attention, worse nights, and recent independence all fit delirium. Alzheimer's disease begins insidiously and progresses over months to years. Depression can impair concentration, but no mood symptoms are described, and it does not explain an abrupt, fluctuating change during an infection. Mild neurocognitive disorder is a modest, gradual decline. Delirium calls for prompt medical evaluation.
Look for this next time: Sudden onset, impaired attention, and a fluctuating course point to delirium rather than dementia.
A 27-year-old with obsessive-compulsive disorder washes his hands up to 60 times a day after touching doorknobs and avoids public restrooms. He prefers psychotherapy to medication. Which psychological treatment has the strongest research support for his symptoms?
- Exposure and response prevention, starting with doorknobs
- Thought stopping each time a contamination thought appears
- Progressive muscle relaxation before he touches a doorknob
- Nondirective supportive therapy to lower his overall stress
Show answer and explanation for question 14
Correct answer: A · Exposure and response prevention, starting with doorknobs
Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is the cognitive-behavioral treatment best supported for OCD. The client is gradually exposed to feared situations, such as touching doorknobs, while refraining from the compulsion, so anxiety declines without the ritual and the belief that washing prevents harm weakens. NIMH states that research shows ERP, a specific type of CBT, effectively reduces compulsive behaviors, even in people who do not respond well to medication. Thought stopping tries to suppress the obsessions and does nothing to stop the washing. Relaxation lowers general arousal but does not break the link between obsession and compulsion. Supportive therapy can build rapport but is not an established treatment for OCD symptoms.
Look for this next time: For OCD, ERP pairs gradual exposure to feared cues with refraining from rituals; it is the best-supported psychotherapy.
A school district offers a 10-week cognitive-behavioral group only to students who score above a cutoff on a depressive-symptom screen but do not meet criteria for a depressive disorder. In the Institute of Medicine's prevention framework, what type of program is this?
- Universal prevention
- Selective prevention
- Tertiary prevention
- Indicated prevention
Show answer and explanation for question 15
Correct answer: D · Indicated prevention
The Institute of Medicine's framework (1994), used in later National Academies reports, sorts prevention by who receives it. Universal programs serve a whole population regardless of risk, such as a lesson for every student. Selective programs serve subgroups whose risk is above average because of a risk factor, for example children of parents with depression. Indicated programs serve individuals who already show minimal but detectable signs or symptoms without meeting full diagnostic criteria, which is exactly how this screen selects students. Tertiary prevention comes from the older public health model and aims to reduce disability among people who already have a disorder, which these students do not.
Look for this next time: Indicated prevention targets individuals with early symptoms who do not yet meet diagnostic criteria.
A first-year practicum student is anxious about saying the wrong thing, follows the treatment manual word for word, and asks her supervisor what to do after nearly every session. In Stoltenberg's Integrated Developmental Model, which supervisory approach best fits her current level?
- Provide structure, specific guidance, and encouragement
- Let her set the agenda so she resolves her dependence alone
- Focus mainly on confronting her countertransference
- Treat her as a peer and offer input only when asked
Show answer and explanation for question 16
Correct answer: A · Provide structure, specific guidance, and encouragement
The Integrated Developmental Model (IDM) describes supervisees moving through levels as self- and other-awareness, motivation, and autonomy develop. Level 1 supervisees, like this student, are typically anxious, self-focused, and dependent on the supervisor, and they benefit from a structured, supportive environment in which the supervisor teaches, gives clear feedback, and encourages. Leaving her to set the agenda alone withholds the structure she needs now. Heavy confrontation suits later levels, when supervisees can tolerate more challenge, and could raise her anxiety. A collegial, consultant-style relationship fits advanced supervisees with greater autonomy. As her skill and confidence grow, the supervisor can gradually give her more independence.
Look for this next time: Beginning supervisees in the IDM need structure, instruction, and support; autonomy and challenge increase as they develop.
A researcher randomly assigns 90 clients to three treatment conditions and compares mean posttreatment anxiety scores. She plans three separate independent-samples t tests, each at α = .05. What is the main problem with this plan?
- t tests are not valid when participants are randomly assigned to groups
- Running several t tests lowers the Type I error rate too far
- A chi-square test is required whenever there are three groups
- The familywise Type I error rate rises above .05; use a one-way ANOVA
Show answer and explanation for question 17
Correct answer: D · The familywise Type I error rate rises above .05; use a one-way ANOVA
Each t test carries a .05 chance of a Type I error, and the risk accumulates across tests. If the three tests were independent, the chance of at least one false positive would be 1 − (.95)³: .95 × .95 × .95 ≈ .857, and 1 − .857 ≈ .14, nearly three times the intended .05. A one-way ANOVA tests the overall difference among the three means at α = .05, and planned or post hoc comparisons, such as Tukey's test, then locate the differences while controlling familywise error. Random assignment is no barrier to t tests. Multiple tests raise, not lower, the Type I error rate. Chi-square tests analyze categorical frequencies, not mean scores.
Look for this next time: Comparing three or more group means with repeated t tests inflates familywise Type I error; use ANOVA with follow-up tests.
A social psychologist's IRB-approved study uses a cover story about its purpose, because revealing the hypothesis would change how participants behave. Data collection will run for six weeks. Under the APA Ethics Code, when must she explain the deception to participants?
- Only to participants who ask about the study's real purpose
- After the results are published, so later participants stay unaware
- As early as feasible, and no later than the end of data collection
- Before each session, which makes the cover story unnecessary
Show answer and explanation for question 18
Correct answer: C · As early as feasible, and no later than the end of data collection
Standard 8.07(c) of the APA Ethics Code (2002, amended 2010 and 2016) requires psychologists to explain any deception that is an integral feature of a study as early as feasible, preferably at the conclusion of each person's participation, and no later than the conclusion of data collection, and to let participants withdraw their data. Waiting for publication exceeds that limit. The explanation is owed to every participant, not only to those who ask; Standard 8.08 also calls for a prompt opportunity to learn about the research. Revealing the hypothesis before each session would defeat the design, and Standard 8.07(a) permits deception when it is justified by the study's value and effective nondeceptive alternatives are not feasible.
Look for this next time: Under APA Standard 8.07(c), explain deception as early as feasible and no later than the end of data collection.
A psychologist has seen a married couple in couples therapy for six months. They separate, and the husband's attorney asks the psychologist to evaluate both parents and recommend a custody arrangement for their children. What is the most appropriate response?
- Accept, since knowing both parents well will make the evaluation more accurate
- Accept if the wife signs a release for her therapy records
- Decline the evaluator role and clarify that she was the couple's therapist
- Accept, but base the report only on what was observed in therapy
Show answer and explanation for question 19
Correct answer: C · Decline the evaluator role and clarify that she was the couple's therapist
Standard 10.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code says that when psychologists may be called on to perform potentially conflicting roles, such as family therapist and then witness for one party in divorce proceedings, they take reasonable steps to clarify and modify, or withdraw from, those roles. Standard 3.05(a) bars a multiple relationship that could reasonably impair objectivity or risk harm. A therapist who becomes a custody evaluator carries a treatment alliance, therapy disclosures, and possible bias into a forensic role in which the parents are now adversaries, so familiarity is the problem, not an advantage. A release addresses confidentiality but not the role conflict. Limiting the report to therapy observations still turns the therapist into an evaluator.
Look for this next time: A treating psychologist should not become a custody evaluator for the same family; clarify roles and withdraw from the conflicting one.
A psychologist in private practice receives a subpoena, signed by an attorney rather than a judge, for a current client's complete therapy records in a civil lawsuit. The client has not authorized any release. What should the psychologist do first?
- Send the full records at once, since a subpoena compels disclosure
- Ignore the subpoena, since only a judge's order requires a response
- Consult the client, then get consent or legal advice before any release
- Remove the process notes from the file before sending anything
Show answer and explanation for question 20
Correct answer: C · Consult the client, then get consent or legal advice before any release
A subpoena calls for a timely response, but in most U.S. jurisdictions it does not by itself authorize release of confidential or privileged records, and the privilege generally belongs to the client. Standard 4.05 of the APA Ethics Code allows disclosure with appropriate consent, or without consent only as mandated by law or where permitted by law for a valid purpose. So the psychologist first discusses the request with the client, and without consent asserts the privilege or gets legal advice, releasing records only on consent or a court order. Sending everything risks an unauthorized disclosure. Ignoring a subpoena can bring contempt sanctions. Altering a file after a legal demand can be unlawful. Rules differ across states and provinces.
Look for this next time: A subpoena alone rarely authorizes disclosure: consult the client, and release records only with consent or a court order.
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Follow the pattern
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