Free NBRC RT Exam (TMC) practice

20 free NBRC RT Exam practice questions

Try an original single-answer set across the four areas of the NBRC Respiratory Therapy Exam, the exam that replaces the TMC in January 2027, then use the explanations to choose your next review. It is a short preview, and it does not predict a result.

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A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a house fire. He has a headache and nausea, his breath sounds are clear, and his pulse oximeter reads 99% on room air. Which test should the respiratory therapist recommend to evaluate him for carbon monoxide poisoning?

Question review

All 20 RT Exam questions with explanations

Try the set above first, then use this list to review. Each answer and explanation stays closed until you open it.

  1. Question 1 · Patient Data

    A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a house fire. He has a headache and nausea, his breath sounds are clear, and his pulse oximeter reads 99% on room air. Which test should the respiratory therapist recommend to evaluate him for carbon monoxide poisoning?

    1. A repeat pulse oximetry reading taken on a different finger
    2. An arterial blood gas, using the PaO2 to judge his oxygen
    3. Carboxyhemoglobin measured by CO-oximetry on a sample of his blood
    4. A chest radiograph to look for smoke injury in both lungs
    Show answer and explanation for question 1

    Correct answer: C · Carboxyhemoglobin measured by CO-oximetry on a sample of his blood

    The CDC's clinical guidance on carbon monoxide poisoning says the conventional two-wavelength pulse oximeter is not accurate when carboxyhemoglobin is present, and that the key to confirming the diagnosis is measuring the carboxyhemoglobin level, which hospital labs usually do with a CO-oximeter on blood samples. A repeat reading on another finger uses the same two-wavelength method, so it cannot reveal carboxyhemoglobin. A PaO2 alone does not measure carboxyhemoglobin either, so it cannot confirm or exclude the diagnosis. A chest radiograph may matter for other injuries, but it measures nothing about carbon monoxide in the blood.

    Look for this next time: Standard pulse oximetry is not accurate when carboxyhemoglobin is present; confirm suspected CO poisoning with CO-oximetry.

  2. Question 2 · Patient Data

    A 66-year-old woman with normal arterial blood gases before surgery became drowsy after receiving an opioid for postoperative pain. Her blood gas now shows pH 7.25, PaCO2 62 mm Hg, and HCO3 26 mEq/L. How should the respiratory therapist interpret these results?

    1. Acute respiratory acidosis with the small HCO3 rise expected early on
    2. Chronic respiratory acidosis with the full renal compensation expected
    3. Metabolic acidosis with partial compensation through faster breathing
    4. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation by a higher PaCO2
    Show answer and explanation for question 2

    Correct answer: A · Acute respiratory acidosis with the small HCO3 rise expected early on

    The Merck Manual defines acidemia as a pH below 7.35 and respiratory acidosis as a primary rise in PCO2. For each 10 mm Hg rise in PCO2, bicarbonate rises about 1–2 mEq/L in acute respiratory acidosis and about 3–4 mEq/L in chronic respiratory acidosis. Her PaCO2 is about 22 mm Hg above 40, so an acute process predicts a bicarbonate a few points above normal, and 26 fits; full chronic compensation would push it into the low 30s. A metabolic acidosis would need a low bicarbonate and would lower the PaCO2, not raise it. A metabolic alkalosis would raise the pH, and hers is 7.25.

    Look for this next time: A high PaCO2 with low pH and a bicarbonate only slightly raised points to acute respiratory acidosis.

  3. Question 3 · Patient Data

    A ventilated adult's arterial PaO2 is 72 mm Hg while the ventilator delivers an FIO2 of 0.60. What is this patient's PaO2/FIO2 (P/F) ratio?

    1. 43 mm Hg
    2. 1.2 mm Hg
    3. 180 mm Hg
    4. 120 mm Hg
    Show answer and explanation for question 3

    Correct answer: D · 120 mm Hg

    The P/F ratio divides the PaO2 by the FIO2 written as a decimal, so 72 divided by 0.60 gives 120 mm Hg. Multiplying the two values instead of dividing gives about 43. Dividing by 60, the FIO2 written as a percentage, gives 1.2. Dividing by 0.40, the share of the gas that is not oxygen, gives 180. The RT Detailed Content Outline lists the P/F ratio among the cardiopulmonary calculations, next to the SpO2/FIO2 ratio and the oxygenation index, so expect to compute it from given values rather than read it from a monitor.

    Look for this next time: P/F ratio = PaO2 ÷ FIO2 as a decimal; a PaO2 of 72 mm Hg on 0.60 gives 120.

  4. Question 4 · Management of Devices and Patient Safety Procedures

    An adult on volume-controlled ventilation has a peak inspiratory pressure that rose from 28 to 42 cm H2O over an hour, while the plateau pressure stayed at 21 cm H2O and the tidal volume is unchanged. Coarse rhonchi are heard over the large airways. What should the respiratory therapist do first?

    1. Report a likely pneumothorax and ask for immediate needle decompression
    2. Suction the endotracheal tube and check the tube for kinks or biting
    3. Raise the high-pressure alarm limit so that the alarm stops sounding
    4. Increase the PEEP to recruit collapsed alveoli in the lower lobes
    Show answer and explanation for question 4

    Correct answer: B · Suction the endotracheal tube and check the tube for kinks or biting

    The Merck Manual's overview of mechanical ventilation explains that the difference between peak and plateau pressure is the resistive pressure, and that a high resistive pressure suggests a kinked endotracheal tube, a tube plugged with secretions, an intraluminal mass, or bronchospasm. Here the gap grew to 21 cm H2O while the plateau did not move, and rhonchi point to secretions, so suctioning and checking the tube come first. A pneumothorax lowers compliance and would raise the plateau as well. Raising the alarm limit silences the warning without fixing the cause. More PEEP targets collapsed alveoli, not a resistance problem, and would raise the pressures further.

    Look for this next time: A rising peak pressure with a steady plateau points to airway resistance: secretions, a kinked tube, or bronchospasm.

  5. Question 5 · Management of Devices and Patient Safety Procedures

    A patient has been on the same ventilator for 6 days. The breathing circuit is clean, intact, and working normally. A new staff member asks whether the circuit should be replaced because it has been in use for several days. Under the CDC's guideline for preventing health-care-associated pneumonia, what is the correct practice?

    1. Replace it every 48 hours to lower the risk of ventilator pneumonia
    2. Replace it once a week while the patient stays on that ventilator
    3. Replace it each shift, after draining condensate toward the patient
    4. Leave it in place and change it only when soiled or malfunctioning
    Show answer and explanation for question 5

    Correct answer: D · Leave it in place and change it only when soiled or malfunctioning

    The CDC's 2003 Guidelines for Preventing Health-Care-Associated Pneumonia say not to change the breathing circuit routinely on the basis of how long it has been used, and to change it when it is visibly soiled or mechanically malfunctioning, a Category IA recommendation. This circuit is neither, so it stays in place. A 48-hour change, a weekly change, and a change at each shift are all schedules based on duration of use. The shift-change option adds a second error: the same guideline says to drain and discard condensate periodically while taking care that it does not drain toward the patient.

    Look for this next time: Change a ventilator circuit when it is visibly soiled or malfunctioning, not on a schedule based on duration of use.

  6. Question 6 · Management of Devices and Patient Safety Procedures

    A man recovering from pneumonia is resting comfortably on 2 L/min by nasal cannula. He is alert and talking, his respiratory rate is 16, and his last SpO2 was 95%. The monitor now reads 81%, with an erratic, low-amplitude waveform, and his fingers are cold. What should the respiratory therapist do first?

    1. Assess him, check the waveform and probe, and move it to a warmer site
    2. Switch him to a non-rebreather mask until the oximeter reading improves
    3. Chart 81% as his oxygen saturation and continue the same monitoring
    4. Remove the oximeter and rely on his skin color for the rest of the shift
    Show answer and explanation for question 6

    Correct answer: A · Assess him, check the waveform and probe, and move it to a warmer site

    The FDA lists poor circulation, skin temperature, skin pigmentation, skin thickness, tobacco use, and fingernail polish among the factors that can affect a pulse oximeter reading, and it advises not to rely only on the oximeter but to consider how the person is doing. Cold fingers and an erratic waveform in a comfortable, talking patient point to a poor signal, so the first step is to assess him and fix the probe site; a low value that persists then needs treatment and a blood gas. Switching to a non-rebreather treats a number that may be artifact. Charting 81% records a doubtful value as fact. Skin color cannot replace measurement.

    Look for this next time: Before acting on a sudden low SpO2, assess the patient and check the waveform and probe site.

  7. Question 7 · Initiation and Modification of Interventions

    A man with ARDS is on volume-controlled ventilation. His predicted body weight is 70 kg and his actual weight is 105 kg. The tidal volume is 560 mL, and the plateau pressure is 34 cm H2O. Under the 2017 ATS/ESICM/SCCM guideline, what should the respiratory therapist recommend?

    1. Keep 560 mL, because it is already within the range of 4 to 8 mL/kg
    2. Lower the tidal volume within 4–8 mL/kg PBW until plateau is below 30
    3. Reset the tidal volume from his actual body weight of 105 kg instead
    4. Increase the inspiratory flow so that the peak pressure falls below 30
    Show answer and explanation for question 7

    Correct answer: B · Lower the tidal volume within 4–8 mL/kg PBW until plateau is below 30

    The 2017 ATS/ESICM/SCCM guideline strongly recommends lower tidal volumes of 4–8 mL/kg of predicted body weight together with a plateau pressure below 30 cm H2O. At 560 mL he receives 8 mL/kg of predicted body weight, the top of the range, while his plateau of 34 breaks the second condition, so the volume comes down within the range. Keeping 560 mL meets only half of the recommendation. Using his actual weight would raise the volume, because the range is set by predicted body weight. Inspiratory flow changes the resistive part of the peak pressure, while the plateau is measured during a no-flow hold, so faster flow cannot fix it.

    Look for this next time: In ARDS, keep tidal volume within 4–8 mL/kg of predicted body weight and plateau pressure below 30 cm H2O.

  8. Question 8 · Initiation and Modification of Interventions

    A woman with a COPD exacerbation is alert, cooperative, and able to clear her secretions, but she is working hard to breathe. Her arterial blood gas shows pH 7.29 and PaCO2 71 mm Hg, and she is not immediately deteriorating. Under the 2017 ERS/ATS guideline on noninvasive ventilation, what should the respiratory therapist recommend?

    1. Start CPAP alone, the guideline's first choice for a COPD flare
    2. Proceed directly to intubation, because her pH is below 7.35
    3. Start bilevel noninvasive ventilation and reassess her closely
    4. Hold ventilatory support, because her CO2 retention is chronic
    Show answer and explanation for question 8

    Correct answer: C · Start bilevel noninvasive ventilation and reassess her closely

    The 2017 ERS/ATS guideline recommends bilevel noninvasive ventilation for acute respiratory failure leading to acute or acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis, with a pH of 7.35 or lower, caused by a COPD exacerbation. It also recommends a trial of bilevel NIV in patients thought to need intubation unless they are immediately deteriorating, and she is alert and stable. CPAP alone is the guideline's alternative for cardiogenic pulmonary edema, not its choice for COPD. A pH below 7.35 is the threshold for NIV, not for going straight to intubation. Holding support would fit only hypercapnia without acidosis, where the guideline suggests not using NIV; her pH is 7.29.

    Look for this next time: For a COPD exacerbation with respiratory acidosis (pH 7.35 or lower), start bilevel NIV unless the patient is immediately deteriorating.

  9. Question 9 · Initiation and Modification of Interventions

    In a procedure suite, a man under anesthesia care has just been intubated, and the respiratory therapist hears breath sounds over both sides of the chest. Under the ASA Standards for Basic Anesthetic Monitoring, what confirms that the tube is correctly positioned?

    1. A clinical check plus carbon dioxide found in the gas he exhales
    2. Bilateral breath sounds alone, when they are equal on both sides
    3. An SpO2 that stays above 94% during the first minutes of breaths
    4. Fogging that appears inside the tube with each of the exhalations
    Show answer and explanation for question 9

    Correct answer: A · A clinical check plus carbon dioxide found in the gas he exhales

    The ASA Standards for Basic Anesthetic Monitoring require that correct positioning of an endotracheal tube or supraglottic airway be verified both by clinical assessment and by identifying carbon dioxide in the expired gas, with continual quantitative end-tidal carbon dioxide analysis, such as capnography, from placement onward. Equal breath sounds are part of the clinical assessment, but alone they leave out the carbon dioxide check. An SpO2 measures oxygenation, not where the tube sits, and the standard does not list it as confirmation. Fogging in the tube is another clinical sign, so it still lacks the required carbon dioxide identification.

    Look for this next time: Confirm tube position with clinical assessment plus exhaled carbon dioxide, then monitor end-tidal CO2 continually.

  10. Question 10 · Initiation and Modification of Interventions

    A term newborn with hypoxic respiratory failure is receiving inhaled nitric oxide (INOmax). Her oxygenation has improved, and the team plans to stop the therapy. According to the INOmax prescribing information, how should the therapy be handled?

    1. Stop it at once, since her oxygenation is now in the target range
    2. Stop it at once and raise her FIO2 to 1.0 to cover the change
    3. Continue it, but stop monitoring inspired NO2 now she is better
    4. Avoid stopping it abruptly, and watch her oxygenation closely
    Show answer and explanation for question 10

    Correct answer: D · Avoid stopping it abruptly, and watch her oxygenation closely

    The INOmax prescribing information warns that abrupt discontinuation may lead to worsening oxygenation and increasing pulmonary artery pressure, called rebound pulmonary hypertension, and says to reinstate the drug immediately if that happens. So the therapy is reduced and stopped without an abrupt cutoff while oxygenation is watched. Stopping at once is the abrupt discontinuation the label warns about, and raising the FIO2 at the same moment does not make the stop any less abrupt. Continuing it without monitoring inspired NO2 conflicts with the label, which calls for monitoring PaO2 and inspired NO2 for as long as the drug is given.

    Look for this next time: Never stop inhaled nitric oxide abruptly: rebound pulmonary hypertension can follow.

  11. Question 11 · Initiation and Modification of Interventions

    A man with COPD has been on the ventilator for 4 days for pneumonia. He has just passed a spontaneous breathing trial, but his PaCO2 rose during the trial, and the team considers him at high risk for extubation failure. Under the 2017 ATS/CHEST guideline, what should the respiratory therapist recommend?

    1. Keep him intubated 24 more hours, then repeat the breathing trial
    2. Extubate him to a nasal cannula and start NIV only if he then fails
    3. Extubate him directly to preventive noninvasive ventilation (NIV)
    4. Extubate him to room air, since he has passed the breathing trial
    Show answer and explanation for question 11

    Correct answer: C · Extubate him directly to preventive noninvasive ventilation (NIV)

    The 2017 ATS/CHEST guideline strongly recommends extubation to preventive noninvasive ventilation for patients at high risk for extubation failure who have been ventilated for more than 24 hours and have passed a breathing trial, and its remarks name hypercapnia and COPD among the high-risk features. He meets every condition. Keeping him intubated after he passed the trial delays the extubation the guideline supports. Waiting to start NIV until he fails conflicts with the 2017 ERS/ATS guideline, which suggests not using NIV to treat established post-extubation respiratory failure. Room air ignores the high risk that the guideline asks clinicians to plan for.

    Look for this next time: After a passed breathing trial, extubate a high-risk patient ventilated over 24 hours directly to preventive NIV.

  12. Question 12 · Initiation and Modification of Interventions

    A woman has been on mechanical ventilation for 3 days and is hemodynamically stable. The ICU team asks the respiratory therapist about rehabilitation and sedation while she remains on the ventilator. Which plan fits the 2017 ATS/CHEST guideline?

    1. Bed rest under deep sedation until extubation, then physical therapy
    2. Protocolized rehabilitation for early mobility, with minimal sedation
    3. Physical therapy only after she leaves the ICU, to protect her lines
    4. Deeper sedation during therapy sessions so she tolerates the ventilator
    Show answer and explanation for question 12

    Correct answer: B · Protocolized rehabilitation for early mobility, with minimal sedation

    For acutely hospitalized adults ventilated for more than 24 hours, the 2017 ATS/CHEST guideline suggests protocolized rehabilitation directed toward early mobilization and protocols that attempt to minimize sedation. Both are conditional recommendations, and both apply to a stable patient on day 3. Bed rest under deep sedation until extubation postpones the mobilization and adds the sedation the guideline tries to minimize. Waiting until she leaves the ICU delays rehabilitation well past the point the guideline addresses. Deepening sedation during therapy runs against the sedation-minimizing protocols and makes active participation harder.

    Look for this next time: For adults ventilated over 24 hours, the 2017 ATS/CHEST guideline suggests early, protocolized mobilization with minimal sedation.

  13. Question 13 · Depth of Clinical Judgment

    In the ICU, a woman intubated 7 days ago after a difficult, traumatic intubation now meets extubation criteria. The team considers her at high risk for post-extubation stridor. According to the 2017 ATS/CHEST guideline, what should the respiratory therapist assess before extubation?

    1. A chest radiograph, to judge the swelling around her vocal cords
    2. A cuff leak test, with steroids before extubation if she fails it
    3. No further test, because she already meets extubation criteria
    4. A maximal inspiratory pressure, to gauge swelling of her larynx
    Show answer and explanation for question 13

    Correct answer: B · A cuff leak test, with steroids before extubation if she fails it

    The 2017 ATS/CHEST guideline suggests a cuff leak test for ventilated adults who meet extubation criteria and are judged at high risk for post-extubation stridor, and it suggests systemic steroids at least 4 hours before extubation for patients who fail the test, without requiring a repeat test. She fits that group, so the cuff leak test is the information to gather. A chest radiograph is not the guideline's test for laryngeal swelling. Skipping the test ignores the high-risk judgment the team has already made. A maximal inspiratory pressure measures breathing muscle strength, not airway swelling.

    Look for this next time: Information gathering: check a cuff leak test before extubating a patient at high risk for post-extubation stridor.

  14. Question 14 · Depth of Clinical Judgment

    In the ICU, a man with COPD is on volume-controlled ventilation at a set rate of 24 breaths/min. The expiratory flow on the ventilator graphic does not return to zero before each new breath, and an end-expiratory hold shows a total PEEP well above the set PEEP. Which ventilator change should the respiratory therapist recommend?

    1. Raise the set rate so that he exhales more carbon dioxide each minute
    2. Increase the tidal volume so more of each breath empties on exhalation
    3. Slow the inspiratory flow to lengthen each inspiration and open alveoli
    4. Lower the set rate so that each breath gets more time for exhalation
    Show answer and explanation for question 14

    Correct answer: D · Lower the set rate so that each breath gets more time for exhalation

    The Merck Manual describes intrinsic PEEP as present when expiratory flow continues until the next breath, measures it with an end-expiratory hold, and lists ways to reduce it: lower the respiratory rate to lengthen exhalation, shorten inspiratory time by increasing inspiratory flow, and treat the airflow obstruction, with an I:E ratio of 1:4 or more in COPD exacerbations. Lowering the set rate gives each breath more time to empty. A higher rate shortens exhalation and adds to the trapped gas. A larger tidal volume leaves more gas to exhale in the same time. A slower inspiratory flow lengthens inspiration and steals time from exhalation.

    Look for this next time: Decision making: reduce auto-PEEP by giving more time to exhale, for example with a lower set rate.

  15. Question 15 · Depth of Clinical Judgment

    In the ICU, a woman with severe ARDS is on lung-protective ventilation, with a tidal volume within 4–8 mL/kg of predicted body weight and a plateau pressure of 28 cm H2O, but her PaO2/FIO2 ratio stays very low. Under the 2017 ATS/ESICM/SCCM guideline, what should the respiratory therapist recommend next?

    1. Prone positioning for more than 12 hours each day
    2. Routine high-frequency oscillatory ventilation
    3. A larger tidal volume to raise her oxygenation
    4. Prone positioning for 2 hours once each morning
    Show answer and explanation for question 15

    Correct answer: A · Prone positioning for more than 12 hours each day

    The 2017 ATS/ESICM/SCCM guideline strongly recommends prone positioning for more than 12 hours a day in adults with severe ARDS, so it is the next step for her. The same guideline strongly recommends against the routine use of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation in moderate or severe ARDS. A larger tidal volume would break the 4–8 mL/kg of predicted body weight range and push the plateau pressure toward the 30 cm H2O limit she already sits close to. Two hours of prone positioning each morning falls far short of the more-than-12-hours duration the recommendation names.

    Look for this next time: Decision making: in severe ARDS, prone positioning for more than 12 hours a day is a strong recommendation.

  16. Question 16 · Depth of Clinical Judgment

    A 38-year-old man admitted to a hospital ward with Guillain-Barré syndrome has worsening weakness in his legs and arms. His SpO2 is 97% on room air, and he says his breathing feels fine. Which assessment should the respiratory therapist recommend to track his breathing muscle strength?

    1. Continuous pulse oximetry, with a call if his SpO2 drops below 90%
    2. A daily chest radiograph to watch for signs of lower-lobe atelectasis
    3. Forced vital capacity measured at the bedside every 6 to 8 hours
    4. Peak expiratory flow measured once each morning before breakfast
    Show answer and explanation for question 16

    Correct answer: C · Forced vital capacity measured at the bedside every 6 to 8 hours

    The Merck Manual says forced vital capacity should be measured every 6 to 8 hours in Guillain-Barré syndrome so that breathing can be assisted if needed, and that a vital capacity below 15 mL/kg indicates endotracheal intubation; it also names inability to lift the head off the pillow as a danger sign. Serial vital capacity is therefore the measure to recommend. Pulse oximetry tracks oxygenation, not muscle strength, so a normal value does not show how close he is to that threshold. A chest radiograph shows the lungs, not the strength of the muscles that move them. One peak flow each morning is far less frequent than the interval the manual gives.

    Look for this next time: Information gathering: in Guillain-Barré syndrome, track breathing muscle strength with forced vital capacity every 6 to 8 hours.

  17. Question 17 · Depth of Clinical Judgment

    A 72-year-old woman in the emergency department has acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema. She is alert and cooperative, has crackles in both lungs and an SpO2 of 86% on a non-rebreather mask, and has no contraindication to mask ventilation. Under the 2017 ERS/ATS guideline, what should the respiratory therapist recommend?

    1. Incentive spirometry every hour to reexpand the lower lung zones
    2. Immediate intubation, because her SpO2 is low on a non-rebreather
    3. Albuterol by nebulizer to clear the crackles heard in both lungs
    4. CPAP or bilevel noninvasive ventilation through a face mask
    Show answer and explanation for question 17

    Correct answer: D · CPAP or bilevel noninvasive ventilation through a face mask

    The 2017 ERS/ATS guideline recommends either bilevel noninvasive ventilation or CPAP for acute respiratory failure due to cardiogenic pulmonary edema, and it recommends a trial of NIV for patients thought to need intubation unless they are immediately deteriorating. She is alert, cooperative, and has no contraindication, so mask CPAP or bilevel fits. Incentive spirometry is a lung-expansion exercise and does not support a patient in acute respiratory failure. Going straight to intubation skips the NIV trial the guideline recommends. The crackles come from fluid in the lungs in heart failure, and an inhaled bronchodilator is not the guideline's treatment for this condition.

    Look for this next time: Decision making: for acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the 2017 ERS/ATS guideline recommends CPAP or bilevel NIV.

  18. Question 18 · Depth of Clinical Judgment

    During a ground transport between hospitals, a ventilated trauma patient suddenly becomes hypotensive. His peak and plateau pressures have both risen sharply, breath sounds are absent on the right, and his trachea is shifted to the left. What should the respiratory therapist do?

    1. Ask for a chest radiograph on arrival before anyone treats the chest
    2. Alert the team to a likely tension pneumothorax for decompression now
    3. Suction the endotracheal tube, since secretions raise peak pressure
    4. Increase the tidal volume to restore his oxygenation and blood pressure
    Show answer and explanation for question 18

    Correct answer: B · Alert the team to a likely tension pneumothorax for decompression now

    The Merck Manual says tension pneumothorax most often occurs in patients receiving positive-pressure ventilation, that sudden hypotension in a ventilated patient should prompt the question, and that absent breath sounds and a trachea shifted to the opposite side are signs. It says the diagnosis is clinical and should not wait for a radiograph, with immediate needle decompression followed by a chest tube, so the therapist alerts the team now. Waiting for an x-ray on arrival is the delay the manual warns against. Secretions raise the peak pressure, not the plateau, and here both rose. A larger tidal volume adds pressure to a chest already under tension.

    Look for this next time: Decision making: sudden hypotension with absent breath sounds and a shifted trachea on a ventilator calls for immediate decompression, not an x-ray.

  19. Question 19 · Depth of Clinical Judgment

    A 2-year-old boy with croup is in the emergency department. He has a barking cough, stridor at rest, and suprasternal retractions, and his SpO2 is 95% on room air. Which plan should the respiratory therapist support?

    1. Racemic epinephrine and a corticosteroid, then at least 2 hours of observation
    2. Cool mist at home, since humidified air shortens the course of croup
    3. Racemic epinephrine, then discharge as soon as the stridor has faded
    4. Albuterol by nebulizer, repeated until his stridor finally goes away
    Show answer and explanation for question 19

    Correct answer: A · Racemic epinephrine and a corticosteroid, then at least 2 hours of observation

    Stridor at rest places him beyond mild croup. The Merck Manual recommends nebulized racemic epinephrine mainly for moderate to severe croup, adds a corticosteroid for these children, and says they should be monitored in a medical setting for at least 2 hours after the epinephrine because its effects are transient. Cool mist at home fits only mild disease, and the manual says humidifiers have not been shown to alter the course of the illness. Discharging him as soon as the stridor fades ignores the 2-hour observation. Albuterol is not among the croup treatments the manual lists, and his SpO2 of 95% needs no oxygen.

    Look for this next time: Decision making: croup with stridor at rest calls for racemic epinephrine, a corticosteroid, and at least 2 hours of observation.

  20. Question 20 · Depth of Clinical Judgment

    In an outpatient pulmonary function lab, a 58-year-old man with progressive shortness of breath has spirometry showing a reduced FVC with a normal FEV1/FVC ratio. The physician asks whether he has a restrictive disorder. What should the respiratory therapist recommend?

    1. Report a restrictive disorder, because the low FVC confirms it
    2. Report an obstructive disorder, based on the reduced FVC alone
    3. Measure lung volumes, because restriction requires a low TLC
    4. Repeat spirometry after a bronchodilator to confirm restriction
    Show answer and explanation for question 20

    Correct answer: C · Measure lung volumes, because restriction requires a low TLC

    The Merck Manual defines restrictive disorders by a reduction in lung volume, specifically a total lung capacity below the lower limit of normal, and says a decreased FEV1/FVC ratio indicates obstruction. A reduced FVC with a normal ratio is consistent with restriction, but the diagnosis rests on lung volumes, so the therapist recommends measuring them. Reporting restriction from the FVC alone skips that step. An obstructive disorder needs a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio, and his ratio is normal. A bronchodilator study tests the response of the airways, which the manual ties to airway hyperresponsiveness, and it cannot show a low total lung capacity.

    Look for this next time: Information gathering: a low FVC with a normal FEV1/FVC ratio suggests restriction, but confirming it takes a low TLC on lung volumes.

Use the sample well

The rationale matters more than the score.

A short set can show you what deserves another look. Twenty questions are a small sample, so this set cannot measure readiness for the RT Exam or predict which cut score you would reach.

01

Answer before reviewing

Choose the best respiratory therapist action, check it, and read why each other option falls short.

02

Read every rationale

Confirm why the best option fits, even when you were right.

03

Follow the pattern

Use recurring misses—not one score—to choose your next focus.