Free Real Estate practice

20 free real estate salesperson practice questions

Twenty original questions for the national portion of the real estate salesperson exam: fixtures, the government survey, joint tenancy, the income approach, counteroffers, fair housing, lead-based paint disclosure, RESPA, closing dates, commission splits, and prorations. State law is not covered; check your state's own outline for the state portion. The items are split across Pearson VUE's eight national areas approximately in proportion to their item counts, but 20 items cannot match the real exam's topic mix or difficulty, and your score here does not predict a pass.

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These are original Passy questions written for the national (general) portion of the real estate salesperson exam. They are not official: not Pearson VUE, PSI, or state exam items, not taken from any vendor's practice tests or textbooks, and not recalled exam questions. Each is a single-answer item with four options. The items are mapped to the eight areas of Pearson VUE's national salesperson outline (effective April 1, 2025) approximately in proportion to their item counts: 3, 2, 3, 4, 2, 2, 2, and 2 items, in outline order. PSI's national outline covers the same topics in eleven areas. Federal law is as checked on October 24, 2026. State license law, state contracts, and state agency rules are not covered, and state law can change the answer on the exam's state portion. Your results here do not predict a pass or your state's passing score.

Quick PracticeQuestion 1 of 20
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Real Property Characteristics, Legal Descriptions, and Property UseStep 1 · Choose one answer

A seller hard-wired a chandelier into the dining room ceiling three years ago. The purchase contract says nothing about it. The day before closing, the seller tells the buyer she plans to take the chandelier and replace it with a plain fixture. Under general real property principles, what is the best answer?

Question review

All 20 Real Estate questions with explanations

Try the set above first, then use this list to review. Each answer and explanation stays closed until you open it.

  1. Question 1 · Real Property Characteristics, Legal Descriptions, and Property Use

    A seller hard-wired a chandelier into the dining room ceiling three years ago. The purchase contract says nothing about it. The day before closing, the seller tells the buyer she plans to take the chandelier and replace it with a plain fixture. Under general real property principles, what is the best answer?

    1. It is a fixture that conveys, since the contract did not exclude it
    2. It is personal property, because she bought it separately from the house
    3. It conveys only if the buyer pays an extra amount for it
    4. She may remove it at any time until the deed is recorded
    Show answer and explanation for question 1

    Correct answer: A · It is a fixture that conveys, since the contract did not exclude it

    An item of personal property becomes a fixture, and part of the real property, when it is attached in a way that shows it was meant to stay. Courts look at the method of attachment, its adaptation to the property, the intention of the person who attached it, and any agreement between the parties. A chandelier wired into the ceiling is attached and adapted to the house, and the contract does not exclude it, so it transfers with the property. The fact that she bought it separately does not keep it personal property; most fixtures start that way. The buyer does not have to pay extra for an item already included. Sellers who want to keep such an item should exclude it in writing before the contract is signed. State law may refine these tests.

    Look for this next time: Attached, adapted items are fixtures that convey unless the contract excludes them; put exclusions in writing.

  2. Question 2 · Real Property Characteristics, Legal Descriptions, and Property Use

    A parcel is described under the rectangular (government) survey system as "the NE 1/4 of the SW 1/4 of Section 12" in a standard township. A section contains 640 acres. How many acres are in the parcel?

    1. 160 acres
    2. 80 acres
    3. 40 acres
    4. 10 acres
    Show answer and explanation for question 2

    Correct answer: C · 40 acres

    In a government survey description, each fraction divides the area that follows it, so you multiply the fractions by the section's acreage. Step 1: a section is 640 acres. Step 2: the SW 1/4 of the section is 640 × 1/4 = 160 acres. Step 3: the NE 1/4 of that quarter is 160 × 1/4 = 40 acres. A shortcut is 640 × 1/4 × 1/4 = 640 ÷ 16 = 40. 160 acres is only the first quarter, the SW 1/4, and stops one step too soon. 80 acres would be a half of a quarter. 10 acres would require another quarter division that is not in the description. The direction letters tell you which part of the area is meant; they do not change the size.

    Look for this next time: Multiply a section's 640 acres by each fraction in the description: 1/4 of 1/4 is 40 acres.

  3. Question 3 · Real Property Characteristics, Legal Descriptions, and Property Use

    A state transportation agency needs a strip of a family's farmland to widen a highway. The family does not want to sell. The agency files to acquire the strip through condemnation. Which government power is the agency using, and what must the family receive?

    1. Police power, and the family receives no payment
    2. Eminent domain, and the family must receive just compensation
    3. Escheat, and the family receives the property's assessed value
    4. Taxation, and the family receives a property tax credit
    Show answer and explanation for question 3

    Correct answer: B · Eminent domain, and the family must receive just compensation

    Eminent domain is the government's power to take private property for public use, and the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution requires just compensation when it does; condemnation is the legal process used to exercise that power. Widening a highway is a public use, so the agency can acquire the strip even over the owners' objection, but it must pay just compensation. Police power lets government regulate property for health, safety, and welfare, for example through zoning, without taking ownership, so it does not fit a transfer of land. Escheat transfers property to the state when an owner dies without a will or heirs. Taxation is the power to levy property taxes. The national outline lists police power, eminent domain, taxation, and escheat as public land use controls.

    Look for this next time: Eminent domain takes private property for public use and requires just compensation; police power regulates without taking.

  4. Question 4 · Forms of Ownership, Transfer, and Recording of Title

    Ana, Ben, and Cara own a rental house as joint tenants with right of survivorship. Ana dies, and her will leaves "all my property" to her son. Who owns the house after Ana's death?

    1. Ana's son, Ben, and Cara, all as joint tenants
    2. Ana's son owns one-third as a tenant in common with Ben and Cara
    3. The state, until Ana's estate is fully settled
    4. Ben and Cara, through the right of survivorship
    Show answer and explanation for question 4

    Correct answer: D · Ben and Cara, through the right of survivorship

    The defining feature of joint tenancy is the right of survivorship: when one joint tenant dies, her interest ends and the surviving joint tenants keep the whole property. Ana's interest therefore passes to Ben and Cara automatically, outside her will, and they continue as joint tenants of the entire house. Her will cannot pass her share, because at her death there is nothing left for it to transfer. Her son would inherit a share only if the owners had held title as tenants in common, where each owner's share passes to her heirs or by will. Escheat to the state applies when an owner dies without a will or heirs, which is not the case here. Joint tenancy rules and how they are created vary somewhat by state.

    Look for this next time: In a joint tenancy, a deceased owner's interest passes to the surviving joint tenants, not through her will.

  5. Question 5 · Forms of Ownership, Transfer, and Recording of Title

    At closing, a seller signs and delivers a deed, and the buyer accepts it. The buyer's attorney says the deed will be recorded at the county office later that week. A new licensee asks what recording does. Which statement is correct?

    1. The deed is not valid between the seller and buyer until it is recorded
    2. Recording, not delivery, is what transfers title to the buyer
    3. Recording gives everyone constructive notice of the buyer's ownership
    4. Recording guarantees that the title has no liens or defects
    Show answer and explanation for question 5

    Correct answer: C · Recording gives everyone constructive notice of the buyer's ownership

    Title passes when a valid deed is delivered by the grantor and accepted by the grantee; between the seller and buyer, the deed is effective without recording. Recording places the deed in the public records, which gives constructive notice: everyone is treated as knowing of the buyer's interest, whether or not they actually checked. That protects the buyer against later claims, such as a second sale or a lien filed against the seller, so prompt recording matters. Saying the deed is invalid until recorded, or that recording rather than delivery transfers title, confuses notice with transfer. Recording does not guarantee a clean title; a title search and title insurance address liens and defects. How states rank competing unrecorded claims varies by state recording statute.

    Look for this next time: Delivery and acceptance transfer title; recording gives constructive notice that protects the buyer against later claims.

  6. Question 6 · Property Value and Appraisal

    A small apartment building has potential gross income of $120,000 a year. The appraiser applies a 5% vacancy and collection loss, and annual operating expenses are $44,000, not counting debt service. The market capitalization rate is 7%. What value does the income approach indicate?

    1. $1,000,000
    2. $1,085,714
    3. $1,628,571
    4. $490,000
    Show answer and explanation for question 6

    Correct answer: A · $1,000,000

    The income approach divides net operating income by the capitalization rate. Step 1: vacancy and collection loss is 5% × $120,000 = $6,000, so effective gross income is $114,000. Step 2: subtract operating expenses: $114,000 − $44,000 = $70,000 of net operating income. Step 3: $70,000 ÷ 0.07 = $1,000,000. Skipping the vacancy step gives $76,000 ÷ 0.07 ≈ $1,085,714, which overstates value. Capitalizing effective gross income without subtracting expenses gives $114,000 ÷ 0.07 ≈ $1,628,571. Multiplying NOI by 7 ($490,000) treats the rate as a multiplier instead of a divisor. Debt service is excluded from operating expenses, because NOI measures the property's income, not the owner's financing. The national outline lists the income approach, net operating income, and capitalization rate.

    Look for this next time: Income approach: value = NOI ÷ cap rate, where NOI = effective gross income − operating expenses.

  7. Question 7 · Property Value and Appraisal

    In a sales comparison analysis, a comparable home sold last month for $410,000. It is similar to the subject property in every way, except that it has a two-car garage the subject lacks, which the market values at $15,000. What is the comparable's adjusted sale price?

    1. $425,000, adding the garage's value to the comparable
    2. $410,000, because comparables are never adjusted
    3. $410,000, with the $15,000 added to the subject's value instead
    4. $395,000, subtracting the garage's value from the comparable
    Show answer and explanation for question 7

    Correct answer: D · $395,000, subtracting the garage's value from the comparable

    In the sales comparison approach, adjustments are always made to the comparable, to show what it would have sold for if it were like the subject. When the comparable has a feature the subject lacks, it is superior, so its price is adjusted down: $410,000 − $15,000 = $395,000. When the comparable lacks a feature the subject has, its price is adjusted up. Adding $15,000 reverses the direction and inflates the indicated value. Comparables are routinely adjusted for differences; that is the core of the method. Adjusting the subject instead of the comparable gets the procedure backward, since the subject's value is what the analysis is trying to find. The national outline lists the sales comparison approach among methods of estimating value.

    Look for this next time: Adjust the comparable, not the subject: subtract for features the comparable has and the subject lacks.

  8. Question 8 · Property Value and Appraisal

    A well-kept house loses value after a new airport runway puts it directly under a low flight path. The house itself is in good condition and has a functional, modern floor plan. Which type of depreciation describes this loss?

    1. Physical deterioration, the wear and tear of the structure
    2. External obsolescence, caused by factors outside the property
    3. Functional obsolescence, caused by an outdated design
    4. Curable functional obsolescence the owner can fix
    Show answer and explanation for question 8

    Correct answer: B · External obsolescence, caused by factors outside the property

    External, or economic, obsolescence is a loss in value caused by factors outside the property, such as noise from a new runway or highway, a nearby nuisance, or a weakening local economy. Because the owner cannot control those outside factors, it is generally considered incurable by the owner. Physical deterioration is wear and tear on the structure itself, and the stem says the house is in good condition. Functional obsolescence comes from features within the property that the market no longer wants, such as a poor floor plan or outdated systems, and this house has a modern, functional layout. Calling it curable functional obsolescence misplaces the cause. The national outline lists physical deterioration and functional and economic obsolescence under the cost approach.

    Look for this next time: Value lost to forces outside the property, like airport noise, is external (economic) obsolescence.

  9. Question 9 · Real Estate Contracts and Agency

    A buyer offers $300,000 for a home. The seller signs a response changing only the price to $310,000. The buyer rejects that price. The next day he tells the seller, "Then I'm holding you to my original $300,000 offer." What is the status of the transaction?

    1. No contract: the counteroffer ended the original offer
    2. A binding contract at $300,000, the buyer's original offer
    3. A binding contract at $305,000, the midpoint of both prices
    4. A binding contract at $310,000, because the seller signed first
    Show answer and explanation for question 9

    Correct answer: A · No contract: the counteroffer ended the original offer

    Acceptance must match the offer's terms exactly. When the seller changed the price, the response was a counteroffer, and a counteroffer rejects and terminates the original offer. The buyer then refused the counteroffer, which ended it as well. With no offer left on the table, the buyer cannot revive the $300,000 offer on his own; he would have to make a new offer, which the seller could accept or reject. A contract at $300,000 would require the seller to accept that offer, which she did not. Nothing creates a contract at a midpoint price. The seller's signature on a counteroffer does not bind the buyer, who rejected it. The national outline lists offer and counteroffer under the sales contract.

    Look for this next time: A counteroffer rejects the original offer; once rejected, an offer cannot later be accepted.

  10. Question 10 · Real Estate Contracts and Agency

    Over coffee, a homeowner and a neighbor agree aloud that the neighbor will buy the homeowner's vacant lot for $60,000 next month. Nothing is written or signed, no money changes hands, and the neighbor has not taken possession. The homeowner later backs out. Can the neighbor enforce the agreement?

    1. Yes, because two friends heard the agreement and can testify
    2. Yes, because oral contracts for land under $100,000 are enforceable
    3. No, because a contract to sell real estate must be in writing
    4. Yes, because a handshake creates a valid bilateral contract
    Show answer and explanation for question 10

    Correct answer: C · No, because a contract to sell real estate must be in writing

    The statute of frauds requires contracts for the sale of an interest in real estate to be in writing and signed by the party to be charged in order to be enforceable. This oral agreement has no writing, no signature, no payment, and no possession, so the neighbor cannot enforce it against the homeowner. Witnesses can prove that words were spoken, but they do not satisfy the writing requirement. There is no dollar threshold that exempts small land sales. An oral exchange of promises can be a bilateral agreement in form, but for land it is unenforceable without a signed writing. Some states recognize narrow exceptions, such as part performance, which do not apply to these facts. The national outline lists the statute of frauds under contract performance.

    Look for this next time: Under the statute of frauds, real estate sale contracts must be in writing and signed to be enforceable.

  11. Question 11 · Real Estate Contracts and Agency

    A developer pays a landowner $2,000 for a written 90-day option to buy her land for $250,000. Sixty days later the landowner receives a higher offer from someone else and wants to sell to that buyer instead. What is the legal effect of the option?

    1. Both parties are bound: the developer must buy, and she must sell
    2. Only the developer is bound to buy the land at $250,000
    3. She may cancel at any time by refunding the developer's $2,000
    4. She must sell on those terms if he exercises in time; he need not buy
    Show answer and explanation for question 11

    Correct answer: D · She must sell on those terms if he exercises in time; he need not buy

    An option contract is a unilateral arrangement for the period it runs: in exchange for consideration, here $2,000, the owner (optionor) promises to keep the offer open and sell on the stated terms if the optionee exercises within the option period. The developer, as optionee, has the right but not the obligation to buy. Until day 90, the landowner cannot sell to someone else in a way that defeats the developer's right, and if he exercises in time she must sell at $250,000. If he lets the option expire, she keeps the $2,000 and is free to sell. Saying both are bound describes a sales contract, not an option. The developer is not obligated to buy. She cannot revoke by refunding the money, because she was paid to keep the offer open.

    Look for this next time: An option binds the owner to sell if the optionee exercises in time; the optionee is free to walk away.

  12. Question 12 · Real Estate Contracts and Agency

    A listing agent represents a seller under an exclusive right-to-sell agreement. The seller confides that she would accept $20,000 less than the list price because she is relocating soon. An unrepresented buyer asks the agent, "What's the lowest she'll really take?" What should the agent do?

    1. Tell the buyer about the $20,000 so the sale closes faster
    2. Keep it confidential and present whatever offer the buyer makes
    3. Disclose it, since honesty to the buyer requires full information
    4. Lower the listing price by $20,000 without asking the seller
    Show answer and explanation for question 12

    Correct answer: B · Keep it confidential and present whatever offer the buyer makes

    An agent owes fiduciary duties to the client, commonly summarized as obedience, loyalty, disclosure, confidentiality, accounting, and reasonable care. The seller's willingness to take less is confidential information that would weaken her bargaining position, so revealing it to the buyer breaches loyalty and confidentiality. The agent should keep it private, tell the buyer that any offer will be presented to the seller, and present every offer promptly. Honesty and fair dealing toward a customer mean not lying or misrepresenting material facts about the property; they do not require disclosing the client's negotiating position. Changing the price without the seller's consent breaches the duty of obedience. States define agency relationships and duties in their own statutes, so check your state's version for the state portion.

    Look for this next time: Keep a client's negotiating position confidential; be honest with customers without sharing the client's bottom line.

  13. Question 13 · Real Estate Practice

    A couple tells their agent they want a three-bedroom home in a particular school district. Noting their national origin, the agent shows them homes only in a neighborhood outside that district where many residents share it, saying they will "feel more at home there." How should this conduct be described?

    1. Good service, because the agent is anticipating the buyers' comfort
    2. Acceptable, as long as the buyers do not object to the homes shown
    3. Steering, which the federal Fair Housing Act prohibits
    4. Acceptable, if the agent would earn the same commission either way
    Show answer and explanation for question 13

    Correct answer: C · Steering, which the federal Fair Housing Act prohibits

    The federal Fair Housing Act prohibits discrimination in housing because of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, familial status, and disability, and it applies to real estate companies and agents. Steering means guiding buyers toward or away from neighborhoods because of a protected characteristic, which limits their housing choices. The agent here ignored the buyers' stated criteria and picked the area because of their national origin, which is steering whatever the agent's intentions. Good intentions do not excuse it. The buyers' silence does not make it lawful, since many people do not realize they are being steered. Commission is irrelevant. The agent should show homes that meet the buyers' stated needs and let them choose. The national outline lists fair housing laws, protected classes, and illegal practices.

    Look for this next time: Steering buyers toward or away from areas because of a protected characteristic violates the Fair Housing Act.

  14. Question 14 · Real Estate Practice

    At a lunch meeting, the managing brokers of two competing brokerages agree that both firms will charge sellers the same commission rate starting next month so that neither undercuts the other. They put nothing in writing. Which statement best describes the agreement?

    1. Price fixing, which the federal Sherman Act prohibits
    2. Lawful, because the agreement was never put in writing
    3. Lawful, as long as each firm publishes the rate to consumers
    4. Only a state licensing matter, not a federal law issue
    Show answer and explanation for question 14

    Correct answer: A · Price fixing, which the federal Sherman Act prohibits

    The Justice Department's Antitrust Division explains that the Sherman Act prohibits any agreement among competitors to fix prices, rig bids, or engage in other anticompetitive activity, and that a violation is a felony with fines of up to $1 million and up to 10 years in prison for individuals. Commission rates are the price of brokerage services, so competitors agreeing on them is price fixing. The DOJ also notes that proving such a crime does not require a formal written agreement, so keeping it oral does not help. Publishing the agreed rate does not cure the agreement. It is a federal antitrust matter, though state law and licensing rules may apply too. Each brokerage must set its own rates independently, and commissions are negotiable with each client.

    Look for this next time: Competing brokers agreeing on commission rates is price fixing under the Sherman Act, written or not.

  15. Question 15 · Property Disclosures and Environmental Issues

    A seller is listing a house built in 1965. An inspection report from two years ago found lead-based paint on the exterior window trim. Under the federal lead-based paint disclosure rule, which set of steps is required before the buyer is bound by a contract?

    1. Disclose the paint only if the buyer asks about lead hazards in writing
    2. Disclose it, give the report and pamphlet, and allow 10 days to inspect
    3. No steps are required, because the rule covers only homes built before 1950
    4. Remove all of the lead-based paint before the house can be listed for sale
    Show answer and explanation for question 15

    Correct answer: B · Disclose it, give the report and pamphlet, and allow 10 days to inspect

    EPA's real estate disclosure rule covers most housing built before 1978. Sellers must disclose known lead-based paint and lead-based paint hazards, including their location and condition, and provide available records and reports. They must give buyers the pamphlet Protect Your Family From Lead in Your Home, include a Lead Warning Statement in the contract, and give buyers 10 days to conduct a paint inspection or risk assessment; the parties may change that period in writing, and buyers may waive it. Signed disclosures must be kept for three years. Disclosure does not depend on a buyer's request. The cutoff year is 1978, not 1950. The rule requires disclosure, not removal of the paint.

    Look for this next time: For pre-1978 housing, disclose known lead paint and reports, give the EPA pamphlet, and offer a 10-day inspection.

  16. Question 16 · Property Disclosures and Environmental Issues

    A listing agent learns that her seller, whose home was built in 1972, knows of lead-based paint in the basement but wants to leave it off the disclosure form "so buyers don't get scared." Under the federal lead disclosure rule, what is the agent's responsibility?

    1. None, because disclosure duties belong to the seller alone
    2. She must test the house for lead herself before showing it
    3. She should respect the client's wishes and keep the information private
    4. She must inform the seller of the duty and shares responsibility for compliance
    Show answer and explanation for question 16

    Correct answer: D · She must inform the seller of the duty and shares responsibility for compliance

    EPA's guidance on the lead disclosure rule says real estate agents must inform sellers of their obligations under the rule, and that agents are responsible for compliance along with the seller, unless the seller fails to disclose lead-based paint information to the agent. Here the seller has told the agent, so the agent must explain that known lead-based paint must be disclosed and must not help leave it off the form; if the seller refuses, the agent should not proceed with a noncompliant transaction and should involve the broker. Saying the duty is the seller's alone ignores the agent's own responsibility. The rule does not require agents to test homes for lead. Loyalty to a client never extends to helping conceal a disclosure the law requires.

    Look for this next time: Under the lead rule, agents must tell sellers their duties and share responsibility for compliance.

  17. Question 17 · Financing and Settlement

    A title insurance agency offers a real estate salesperson $250 for each buyer she refers whose purchase closes with the agency, using a federally related mortgage loan. The agency promises the payment will be disclosed on the Closing Disclosure. Under RESPA, should she accept?

    1. No: a fee for referring settlement business is a prohibited kickback
    2. Yes, because the payment will appear on the Closing Disclosure
    3. Yes, as long as each referral payment is under $500
    4. Yes, because only lenders are covered by RESPA's referral rules
    Show answer and explanation for question 17

    Correct answer: A · No: a fee for referring settlement business is a prohibited kickback

    Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.14(b), which implements RESPA Section 8, says no person shall give and no person shall accept any fee, kickback, or other thing of value under an agreement or understanding that settlement service business involving a federally related mortgage loan will be referred. It adds that a referral of a settlement service is not a compensable service. A payment per closed referral is exactly that, so she should decline. Disclosure on the Closing Disclosure does not make a kickback lawful, and there is no dollar amount below which kickbacks are allowed. The rule applies to any person who gives or accepts the payment, not just lenders. Payments for services actually performed are treated differently, but sending customers is not a service. The national outline lists RESPA referrals and rebates.

    Look for this next time: Under RESPA Section 8, no one may pay or accept a fee for referring settlement service business.

  18. Question 18 · Financing and Settlement

    A buyer's mortgage closing is scheduled for a Thursday, and there are no federal holidays that week. The buyer asks her agent when she should expect to receive the Closing Disclosure from the lender under the TILA-RESPA Integrated Disclosure rule. What is the correct answer?

    1. At the closing table on Thursday, when she signs the loan documents
    2. At least 24 hours before closing, on Wednesday
    3. By Monday, three business days before consummation
    4. At least 10 business days before closing
    Show answer and explanation for question 18

    Correct answer: C · By Monday, three business days before consummation

    Under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(1)(ii), the creditor must ensure the consumer receives the Closing Disclosure no later than three business days before consummation. For this rule a business day is every calendar day except Sundays and federal legal public holidays. Counting back three business days from Thursday gives Wednesday, Tuesday, and then Monday, so the buyer should receive it by Monday. Receiving it at the table, or only 24 hours ahead, would not meet the waiting period, and the closing would have to move. Ten business days is not the rule. The three-day window gives the buyer time to compare the final terms with the Loan Estimate and ask questions. The national outline lists TRID, the Loan Estimate, and the Closing Disclosure under federal financing regulations.

    Look for this next time: The buyer must receive the Closing Disclosure three business days before consummation: Monday for a Thursday closing.

  19. Question 19 · Real Estate Math Calculations

    A home sells for $425,000. The seller agreed to a total commission of 5.5%, which the listing and buyer brokerages split equally. The listing salesperson receives 60% of her brokerage's share. How much does the listing salesperson earn?

    1. $23,375.00
    2. $11,687.50
    3. $14,025.00
    4. $7,012.50
    Show answer and explanation for question 19

    Correct answer: D · $7,012.50

    Work from the total commission down to the salesperson's share. Step 1: total commission is $425,000 × 0.055 = $23,375.00. Step 2: the listing brokerage receives half: $23,375.00 ÷ 2 = $11,687.50. Step 3: the salesperson receives 60% of her brokerage's share: $11,687.50 × 0.60 = $7,012.50. $23,375.00 is the entire commission, before any split. $11,687.50 is the listing brokerage's share before the salesperson's split. $14,025.00 applies her 60% to the total commission, skipping the split between brokerages. Commission rates and splits are set by agreement and negotiable; no rate is standard. The national outline lists commission and compensation calculations among real estate math topics.

    Look for this next time: Commission math: sale price × rate, then the brokerage split, then the salesperson's split, in that order.

  20. Question 20 · Real Estate Math Calculations

    Annual property taxes of $4,380 are paid in arrears and have not been paid for the current year. Closing is June 30 of a non-leap year. The seller is responsible for the day of closing, and prorations use a 365-day year. How is the proration shown on the closing statement?

    1. $2,190.00, debit to the seller, for half a year
    2. $2,172.00, debit to the seller and credit to the buyer
    3. $2,172.00, credit to the seller and debit to the buyer
    4. $4,380.00, debit to the seller, for the full year
    Show answer and explanation for question 20

    Correct answer: B · $2,172.00, debit to the seller and credit to the buyer

    Step 1: the daily tax is $4,380 ÷ 365 = $12.00. Step 2: the seller owned the home from January 1 through June 30, counting closing day: 31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 = 181 days. Step 3: the seller's share is 181 × $12 = $2,172.00. Because taxes are paid in arrears, the buyer will pay the whole year's bill later, so the seller's share is a debit to the seller and a credit to the buyer at closing. Half a year, $2,190, ignores the actual day count. Crediting the seller reverses the direction, which would be right only if the seller had prepaid the year. Charging the seller the full year makes him pay for months the buyer will own the home. The national outline lists prorated items and debits and credits.

    Look for this next time: Taxes paid in arrears: the seller's share to closing is a debit to the seller and a credit to the buyer.

Use the sample well

The rationale matters more than the score.

A short set can show you what deserves another look. Twenty questions are a small sample, so this set cannot measure readiness for the 80-scored-item national portion or predict whether you will pass in your state.

01

Answer before reviewing

Name the principle or federal law the question turns on, work any numbers step by step, then choose. Read why each of the other three options falls short.

02

Read every rationale

Confirm why the best option fits, even when you were right.

03

Follow the pattern

Use recurring misses—not one score—to choose your next focus.