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20 free CompTIA A+ practice questions

Twenty original multiple-choice scenarios for CompTIA A+ V15: ten for Core 1 (220-1201) and ten for Core 2 (220-1202). A percentage here is not a scaled score on the 100–900 scale.

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These are original Passy questions, not official CompTIA items. Each one is mapped to one of the nine domains in the 220-1201 and 220-1202 objectives, and every domain appears at least once, but the set is not weighted like the real exam. This web set is multiple choice only and does not simulate multiple-response, drag-and-drop, or performance-based questions. Results here do not predict a 675 on Core 1 or a 700 on Core 2.

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Mobile DevicesStep 1 · Choose one answer

A company lets employees read work email on their personal Android phones. If an employee leaves, IT must be able to remove company email and apps from the phone without erasing the employee's own photos and apps. What should the technician set up?

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All 20 A+ questions with explanations

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Question 1 · Mobile Devices
A company lets employees read work email on their personal Android phones. If an employee leaves, IT must be able to remove company email and apps from the phone without erasing the employee's own photos and apps. What should the technician set up?
1. MDM enrollment with a policy that factory-resets the phone when the employee leaves
2. A rule that the phone must stay paired over Bluetooth with the employee's work laptop
3. MDM enrollment with a work profile that keeps company apps and data separate, so IT can remove only that profile
4. Location services that stay on at all times, so a lost phone can be found
Show answer and explanation for question 1
Correct answer: C · MDM enrollment with a work profile that keeps company apps and data separate, so IT can remove only that profile
On a personally owned (BYOD) phone, a work profile keeps company apps and data in their own managed space. Removing that profile, often called a retire or selective wipe, deletes the company data and leaves personal data alone. A factory reset erases everything, including the personal photos the requirement protects. Bluetooth pairing and location services do not separate or remove company data.
Look for this next time: On BYOD phones, MDM should remove company data alone. A full factory reset is a tool for corporate-owned devices.
Question 2 · Networking
A user reads email on a laptop and a phone. Messages downloaded on the laptop no longer appear on the phone, and folders made on one device never show up on the other. The user wants both devices to show the same mailbox, with the mail kept on the server. Which protocol should both mail clients use to receive mail?
1. IMAP, which uses TCP port 143 by default
2. POP3, which uses TCP port 110 by default
3. SMTP, which uses TCP port 25
4. LDAP, which uses TCP port 389
Show answer and explanation for question 2
Correct answer: A · IMAP, which uses TCP port 143 by default
IMAP lets a client work with mailboxes and folders that stay on the server, so every device sees the same messages, folders, and read status. POP3 is built to download mail to one client and usually delete it from the server, which is the problem the user has now. SMTP sends and relays mail; it does not give a client its mailbox. LDAP is a directory protocol, not a mail protocol. Many servers also offer IMAP over TLS on port 993.
Look for this next time: IMAP keeps one mailbox on the server for many devices. POP3 downloads mail to a single device.
Question 3 · Networking
A wired office PC cannot reach the file server or the internet. Other PCs on the same switch work normally. ipconfig shows IPv4 address 169.254.37.12, subnet mask 255.255.0.0, and no default gateway. What does this address tell the technician?
1. The DHCP server leased the PC an address from a reserved printer scope
2. The PC got no answer from a DHCP server and assigned itself an APIPA address
3. The PC has a valid address, and only DNS name resolution is failing
4. The internet provider gave the PC a public address that the office firewall blocks
Show answer and explanation for question 3
Correct answer: B · The PC got no answer from a DHCP server and assigned itself an APIPA address
Windows uses Automatic Private IP Addressing when it is set to get an address automatically and no DHCP server responds. APIPA addresses come from 169.254.0.0/16, and routers do not forward that range, so the PC can reach only other link-local hosts. A DHCP lease, reserved or not, would come from the office scope and include a gateway. A DNS problem would leave a normal address in place. 169.254.x.x is not a public address. A sensible next check is the cable, switch port, and VLAN, then ipconfig /renew.
Look for this next time: A 169.254.x.x address points to DHCP, not DNS. Check the path to the DHCP server first.
Question 4 · Hardware
A small office is building a file server array from four 4 TB drives. The array must stay online if any two drives fail at the same time. Which configuration meets that requirement, and about how much usable space will it have?
1. RAID 5, with about 12 TB usable
2. RAID 10, with about 8 TB usable
3. RAID 6, with about 8 TB usable
4. RAID 0, with about 16 TB usable
Show answer and explanation for question 4
Correct answer: C · RAID 6, with about 8 TB usable
RAID 6 stores two sets of parity, so it survives any two drive failures. Usable space is the number of drives minus two, times the drive size: (4 − 2) × 4 TB = 8 TB. RAID 5 keeps one set of parity and survives only one failure. RAID 10 also gives 8 TB, but it fails if both drives in the same mirrored pair are lost, so it does not survive any two. RAID 0 has no redundancy at all.
Look for this next time: RAID 6 gives up two drives of space and survives any two failures. RAID 10 survives two only when they are in different mirrors.
Question 5 · Hardware
A technician must run new Cat 6 cable through the space above a drop ceiling. The building engineer says that space is an air-return plenum for the HVAC system. Which cable should the technician use?
1. Cat 6 with a plenum (CMP) rating
2. Cat 6 with a riser (CMR) rating
3. Cat 6 rated for direct burial
4. Cat 6 with a general-purpose (CM) rating
Show answer and explanation for question 5
Correct answer: A · Cat 6 with a plenum (CMP) rating
A plenum moves building air, so a cable fire there can spread smoke quickly. Plenum-rated (CMP) cable is tested for flame spread and smoke in air-handling spaces, and U.S. electrical code generally calls for it there unless the cable runs inside an approved raceway. Riser cable is meant for vertical runs between floors and is not a substitute for plenum cable. Direct-burial cable is built to resist moisture underground, not to limit smoke. General-purpose CM cable carries a lower fire rating than riser or plenum cable. The local inspector has the final word on code.
Look for this next time: Air-handling space means plenum-rated cable. A higher rating can replace a lower one, never the reverse.
Question 6 · Hardware
A technician is adding memory to a laptop. The laptop's specifications list DDR4-3200 memory, and one memory slot is empty. Which module should the technician order?
1. A DDR4-3200 DIMM
2. A DDR5-4800 SODIMM
3. A DDR4-3200 registered ECC DIMM
4. A DDR4-3200 SODIMM
Show answer and explanation for question 6
Correct answer: D · A DDR4-3200 SODIMM
Socketed laptop memory normally uses the small outline SODIMM form factor, and the module must be the DDR generation the laptop supports. A full-length DIMM is the desktop form factor and will not fit a laptop slot. A DDR5 SODIMM has a different pin count and notch position, so it cannot be installed in a DDR4 slot. Registered ECC DIMMs are server modules and also use the desktop-length form factor.
Look for this next time: Match both the form factor (SODIMM or DIMM) and the DDR generation. The key notch stops a wrong-generation module.
Question 7 · Virtualization and Cloud Computing
A development team wants to run its web application in the cloud. The team does not want to install, patch, or maintain server operating systems, but it will still write, deploy, and update its own code and manage the application's data. Which cloud service model fits?
1. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
2. Platform as a service (PaaS)
3. Software as a service (SaaS)
4. A community cloud
Show answer and explanation for question 7
Correct answer: B · Platform as a service (PaaS)
With PaaS, the provider runs the servers, storage, network, and operating systems, and the customer deploys and controls its own applications. With IaaS, the customer gets virtual machines and still manages their operating systems. SaaS delivers a finished application, so the team would not be deploying its own code. A community cloud is a deployment model shared by organizations with common needs, not a service model.
Look for this next time: Ask who patches the OS. With IaaS, you do. With PaaS and SaaS, the provider does, and with SaaS the application is the provider's too.
Question 8 · Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
An office desktop is plugged into a power strip that is switched off every night. Each morning the PC shows the wrong date and time, and its UEFI boot order is back to the defaults. After the settings are corrected, it runs normally all day. What is the most likely cause?
1. The power supply's 12V output is failing under load
2. Windows is not syncing its clock with a time server
3. The motherboard's CMOS coin-cell battery is depleted
4. The SSD needs a firmware update
Show answer and explanation for question 8
Correct answer: C · The motherboard's CMOS coin-cell battery is depleted
The coin-cell battery keeps the real-time clock running while the PC has no AC power, and on many motherboards a depleted battery also makes the firmware settings revert to defaults. That matches this pattern: both reset only after the power strip cuts AC power. A failing power supply would cause trouble while the PC is running, such as random shutdowns. Time sync can correct the clock after Windows starts, but it would not reset the boot order. SSD firmware does not store UEFI settings.
Look for this next time: A wrong date and lost firmware settings after power is removed point to the CMOS battery, often a CR2032.
Question 9 · Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
A user's desktop hard drive has started making intermittent clicking sounds, and the drive maker's utility reports a S.M.A.R.T. failure prediction. Windows still starts and the files open. What should the technician do NEXT?
1. Back up the user's data to another device now, then plan to replace the drive
2. Defragment the drive so the files move away from the damaged area
3. Format the drive and reinstall Windows to clear the warning
4. Turn off S.M.A.R.T. reporting in UEFI so the warning stops
Show answer and explanation for question 9
Correct answer: A · Back up the user's data to another device now, then plan to replace the drive
A S.M.A.R.T. warning is a prediction that the drive will fail soon, and clicking from a hard drive is a common sign of mechanical trouble. While the data is still readable, copy it somewhere safe, then replace the drive. Defragmenting puts hours of extra work on a failing drive. Formatting destroys the data and does not repair the hardware. Hiding the warning leaves the risk in place.
Look for this next time: When a drive predicts its own failure, protect the data first. The replacement comes second.
Question 10 · Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Users in one conference room report Wi-Fi drops of a few seconds, mostly around lunchtime. The room shares a wall with a break room that has a microwave oven, and the laptops connect on the 2.4 GHz band. Other rooms have no problems. What should the technician do NEXT?
1. Replace the wireless card in every laptop that uses the room
2. Reset the access point to its factory defaults
3. Shorten the DHCP lease time on the router
4. Use a Wi-Fi analyzer in the room while the microwave runs to check the 2.4 GHz channel for interference
Show answer and explanation for question 10
Correct answer: D · Use a Wi-Fi analyzer in the room while the microwave runs to check the 2.4 GHz channel for interference
The timing and location point to radio interference. Microwave ovens operate in the 2.4 GHz band and can disrupt Wi-Fi there. A Wi-Fi analyzer can confirm the problem before anything is changed; if it is confirmed, moving the clients to 5 GHz or changing the channel are likely fixes. Every laptop failing in one room at once is not a card problem. A factory reset erases the configuration without addressing interference. The DHCP lease time does not cause short radio dropouts.
Look for this next time: Confirm interference with a Wi-Fi analyzer before changing hardware or settings.
Question 11 · Operating Systems
A technician must copy C:\Projects, including every subfolder (even empty ones), to \\fs01\Archive. That destination already holds other teams' files that must stay, and nothing in C:\Projects may be removed. Which command does this?
1. robocopy C:\Projects \\fs01\Archive /S
2. robocopy C:\Projects \\fs01\Archive /E
3. robocopy C:\Projects \\fs01\Archive /MIR
4. robocopy C:\Projects \\fs01\Archive /MOVE
Show answer and explanation for question 11
Correct answer: B · robocopy C:\Projects \\fs01\Archive /E
/E copies all subdirectories, including empty ones, and leaves extra files at the destination alone. /S also copies subdirectories but skips empty ones. /MIR is /E plus /PURGE, so it would delete the other teams' files because they are not in the source. /MOVE deletes files and folders from the source after copying them.
Look for this next time: /E copies the whole tree. /MIR makes the destination an exact mirror, which can delete files that are already there.
Question 12 · Operating Systems
A technician installs a second, brand-new SSD in a Windows 11 desktop. The UEFI setup screen and Device Manager both list the drive, but it does not appear in File Explorer. Which tool should the technician use to make the drive usable?
1. Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc), to initialize the disk and create a formatted volume
2. Device Manager (devmgmt.msc), to update the drive's driver
3. Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc), to clear the System log
4. Task Scheduler (taskschd.msc), to schedule a disk check
Show answer and explanation for question 12
Correct answer: A · Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc), to initialize the disk and create a formatted volume
A new disk has no partition table or volume yet, so File Explorer has nothing to show. Disk Management can initialize it as GPT or MBR, then create, format, and assign a drive letter to a new volume. Device Manager already lists the drive, so the driver is working. Clearing the System log and scheduling a disk check do not create a volume.
Look for this next time: A drive that the firmware sees but File Explorer does not usually needs to be initialized and given a volume.
Question 13 · Operating Systems
On a Linux workstation, a technician mounts a new data drive at /data with the mount command, and the files are reachable. After a reboot, the drive is no longer mounted. Which file should the technician edit so the drive mounts at every boot?
1. /etc/hosts
2. /etc/resolv.conf
3. /etc/fstab
4. /etc/passwd
Show answer and explanation for question 13
Correct answer: C · /etc/fstab
/etc/fstab lists the filesystems the system should mount, with their mount points and options, and those entries are mounted at boot. A manual mount command lasts only until the next restart. /etc/hosts maps hostnames to IP addresses, /etc/resolv.conf lists DNS servers, and /etc/passwd holds user account information.
Look for this next time: A manual mount is temporary. A line in /etc/fstab makes it persistent; test the line with mount -a before rebooting.
Question 14 · Security
A Windows 11 Home laptop shows pop-ups, and its browser home page keeps changing. The technician has confirmed that the symptoms match malware and has disconnected the laptop from the network. Following the A+ malware-removal order, what should the technician do NEXT?
1. Create a new restore point so the current state can be recovered later
2. Reconnect the laptop to the office network so the antivirus can download new definitions
3. Show the user how to avoid the download that caused the infection
4. Turn off System Restore so that existing restore points, which may hold the infection, are removed
Show answer and explanation for question 14
Correct answer: D · Turn off System Restore so that existing restore points, which may hold the infection, are removed
In the A+ malware-removal procedure, investigating the symptoms and quarantining the system come first. On Windows Home, the next step is to turn off System Restore, which deletes the existing restore points so an infected one cannot bring the malware back. Updating anti-malware, scanning, and removal come after that. Creating a restore point now would save the infected state. Reconnecting the laptop to the office network would end the quarantine. Educating the user is the final step.
Look for this next time: Turn off System Restore before cleaning. Turn it back on and create a fresh restore point only after the system is clean.
Question 15 · Security
On a file server, D:\Reports is shared as \\FS1\Reports. The share permission is Everyone: Read. The NTFS permission on the folder is Sales: Modify. Dana, a member of Sales, opens a report through \\FS1\Reports and cannot save her changes. What is Dana's effective access through the share?
1. Modify
2. Read
3. Full Control
4. No access
Show answer and explanation for question 15
Correct answer: B · Read
When a user connects over the network, Windows checks both the share permissions and the NTFS permissions and applies the more restrictive result. The share allows only Read, so Dana gets Read even though NTFS grants Modify. Modify would apply if she signed in at the server and opened the folder locally, because share permissions affect only network access. Nothing here grants Full Control, and both permission sets allow at least Read.
Look for this next time: Over the network, the stricter of the share and NTFS permissions wins. Locally, only NTFS applies.
Question 16 · Security
A small office is replacing its wireless router. Every laptop, phone, and printer in the office supports WPA3, and the office has no RADIUS server. Which wireless security setting should the technician choose?
1. WPA2-Personal with TKIP encryption
2. An open network with the SSID broadcast turned off
3. WPA3-Personal with a long, unique passphrase
4. WPA2-Enterprise pointed at a RADIUS server
Show answer and explanation for question 16
Correct answer: C · WPA3-Personal with a long, unique passphrase
WPA3-Personal authenticates with SAE instead of WPA2's pre-shared key method, which makes offline password guessing much harder, so it is the strongest option that every device here supports. TKIP is a legacy encryption method that the Wi-Fi Alliance has deprecated. Hiding the SSID does not encrypt anything, and the network name can still be discovered. WPA2-Enterprise needs a RADIUS server, which this office does not have.
Look for this next time: Use WPA3 when every device supports it. Hiding the SSID is not encryption, and TKIP is a legacy method.
Question 17 · Software Troubleshooting
A Windows 11 PC shows a blue screen stop error a few seconds after every sign-in. The problem started the day after a new graphics driver was installed. What should the technician do NEXT?
1. Boot into Safe Mode from the recovery environment and roll back or uninstall the new graphics driver
2. Replace the RAM, because memory faults are a common cause of stop errors
3. Perform a clean install of Windows and restore the user's files from backup
4. Schedule chkdsk /f to run at every startup until the error stops
Show answer and explanation for question 17
Correct answer: A · Boot into Safe Mode from the recovery environment and roll back or uninstall the new graphics driver
The crashes started right after a driver change, and Microsoft reports that most stop errors come from third-party driver code. Safe Mode starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers, so the technician can reach Device Manager and roll back or remove the new driver. Bad memory can cause stop errors, but nothing here points to it. A clean install is a last resort that skips the obvious change. chkdsk repairs file system errors, not a faulty driver.
Look for this next time: When a problem starts right after a change, undo that change first. Safe Mode makes that possible when normal startup fails.
Question 18 · Software Troubleshooting
Right after a user installed a 'battery saver' app from a website instead of Google Play, their Android phone began showing full-screen ads over other apps and using far more mobile data. What should the technician do first?
1. Turn on developer mode so the user can see which app is running
2. Upgrade the user's data plan so the usage warnings stop
3. Root the phone so a cleanup tool can remove the ads
4. Uninstall the app that came from outside Google Play, then run a Play Protect scan
Show answer and explanation for question 18
Correct answer: D · Uninstall the app that came from outside Google Play, then run a Play Protect scan
The symptoms started with an app from an unofficial source, which makes it the likely cause. Google advises uninstalling apps you don't trust or didn't get from Google Play, and using Play Protect to scan for harmful apps. If the app is hard to find or remove, safe mode turns off downloaded apps so the culprit can be isolated and uninstalled. Developer mode and rooting weaken the phone's protections. A bigger data plan hides a symptom and leaves the adware in place.
Look for this next time: New ads and data use right after a sideloaded install point to that app. Remove it, then scan.
Question 19 · Operational Procedures
A workstation backup job runs a full backup every Sunday night and a differential backup Monday through Saturday nights. The drive fails Thursday morning, before Thursday night's job runs. Which backups restore the data to its state as of Wednesday night?
1. Sunday's full backup, then the Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday differentials in order
2. Sunday's full backup, then Wednesday's differential
3. Wednesday's differential by itself
4. Sunday's full backup by itself
Show answer and explanation for question 19
Correct answer: B · Sunday's full backup, then Wednesday's differential
A differential backup holds every change since the last full backup. To restore, you need the full backup plus only the most recent differential, here Wednesday's. Restoring each backup in order is how an incremental chain works; with differentials, Monday's and Tuesday's changes are already in Wednesday's. Wednesday's differential alone has no base to apply to. Sunday's full backup alone would lose three days of changes.
Look for this next time: Differential restore: last full plus last differential. Incremental restore: last full plus every incremental since.
Question 20 · Operational Procedures
Attackers are actively exploiting a flaw in the company's firewall, and the vendor has released a patch. Patches here normally go through the monthly maintenance window as normal changes, but the change advisory board does not meet until next week and this patch cannot wait. How should the team handle the change?
1. As a normal change: wait for next week's board meeting and the monthly window
2. As a standard change: treat it as routine pre-approved work with no risk review
3. With no change record: apply it now and skip the paperwork because it is urgent
4. As an emergency change: fast-tracked approval by the designated approvers, a rollback plan, and documentation
Show answer and explanation for question 20
Correct answer: D · As an emergency change: fast-tracked approval by the designated approvers, a rollback plan, and documentation
An emergency change is for work that has to happen right away, such as resolving a major incident or applying an urgent security patch. It still needs authorization, a rollback plan, and a record, but on a faster path. Waiting for next week leaves an actively exploited flaw open. A standard change is low-risk, pre-approved routine work, which this unplanned firewall patch is not. Skipping the record removes the review and the rollback plan when they matter most.
Look for this next time: Emergency changes move faster, but they are still approved, planned for rollback, and documented.

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A short set can show you what deserves another look. A strong run shows you can connect a symptom to its likely cause and choose a safe next step. It does not predict a 675 or a 700.

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Pick the one answer that fits the scenario. Then read why each other choice falls short.

Read every rationale

Confirm why the best option fits, even when you were right.

Follow the pattern

Use recurring misses—not one score—to choose your next focus.

Want the wider map? Read A+ ports and protocols by scenario or What Core 1 and Core 2 each cover.

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20 original questions

20 free CompTIA A+ practice questions

A company lets employees read work email on their personal Android phones. If an employee leaves, IT must be able to remove company email and apps from the phone without erasing the employee's own photos and apps. What should the technician set up?

All 20 A+ questions with explanations

A company lets employees read work email on their personal Android phones. If an employee leaves, IT must be able to remove company email and apps from the phone without erasing the employee's own photos and apps. What should the technician set up?

A wired office PC cannot reach the file server or the internet. Other PCs on the same switch work normally. ipconfig shows IPv4 address 169.254.37.12, subnet mask 255.255.0.0, and no default gateway. What does this address tell the technician?

A small office is building a file server array from four 4 TB drives. The array must stay online if any two drives fail at the same time. Which configuration meets that requirement, and about how much usable space will it have?

A technician must run new Cat 6 cable through the space above a drop ceiling. The building engineer says that space is an air-return plenum for the HVAC system. Which cable should the technician use?

A technician is adding memory to a laptop. The laptop's specifications list DDR4-3200 memory, and one memory slot is empty. Which module should the technician order?

A development team wants to run its web application in the cloud. The team does not want to install, patch, or maintain server operating systems, but it will still write, deploy, and update its own code and manage the application's data. Which cloud service model fits?

An office desktop is plugged into a power strip that is switched off every night. Each morning the PC shows the wrong date and time, and its UEFI boot order is back to the defaults. After the settings are corrected, it runs normally all day. What is the most likely cause?

A user's desktop hard drive has started making intermittent clicking sounds, and the drive maker's utility reports a S.M.A.R.T. failure prediction. Windows still starts and the files open. What should the technician do NEXT?

Users in one conference room report Wi-Fi drops of a few seconds, mostly around lunchtime. The room shares a wall with a break room that has a microwave oven, and the laptops connect on the 2.4 GHz band. Other rooms have no problems. What should the technician do NEXT?

A technician must copy C:\Projects, including every subfolder (even empty ones), to \\fs01\Archive. That destination already holds other teams' files that must stay, and nothing in C:\Projects may be removed. Which command does this?

A technician installs a second, brand-new SSD in a Windows 11 desktop. The UEFI setup screen and Device Manager both list the drive, but it does not appear in File Explorer. Which tool should the technician use to make the drive usable?

On a Linux workstation, a technician mounts a new data drive at /data with the mount command, and the files are reachable. After a reboot, the drive is no longer mounted. Which file should the technician edit so the drive mounts at every boot?

A Windows 11 Home laptop shows pop-ups, and its browser home page keeps changing. The technician has confirmed that the symptoms match malware and has disconnected the laptop from the network. Following the A+ malware-removal order, what should the technician do NEXT?

On a file server, D:\Reports is shared as \\FS1\Reports. The share permission is Everyone: Read. The NTFS permission on the folder is Sales: Modify. Dana, a member of Sales, opens a report through \\FS1\Reports and cannot save her changes. What is Dana's effective access through the share?

A small office is replacing its wireless router. Every laptop, phone, and printer in the office supports WPA3, and the office has no RADIUS server. Which wireless security setting should the technician choose?

A Windows 11 PC shows a blue screen stop error a few seconds after every sign-in. The problem started the day after a new graphics driver was installed. What should the technician do NEXT?

Right after a user installed a 'battery saver' app from a website instead of Google Play, their Android phone began showing full-screen ads over other apps and using far more mobile data. What should the technician do first?

A workstation backup job runs a full backup every Sunday night and a differential backup Monday through Saturday nights. The drive fails Thursday morning, before Thursday night's job runs. Which backups restore the data to its state as of Wednesday night?

The rationale matters more than the score.

Answer before reviewing

Read every rationale

Follow the pattern

Choose your next step.

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